2007-12-12 21:05:04 · 10 answers · asked by Matthew. 4 in Politics & Government ➔ Other - Politics & Government
District of Colombia - like the others said.
The reason it is a separate entity is so that no state has control over the federal capital.
Many other federal counries have the same arragement.
2007-12-12 21:54:30 · answer #1 · answered by Roger C 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
As they say District of Columbia.
I believe that it's because it doesn't truly belong to any state, and is it's own special political zone. If this is the case I don't truly know why, however during the American Civil War Maryland looked like it may join the Confederacy so there may be some connection.
If I'm completely wrong, I'm sure that someone will tell me.
2007-12-12 21:18:04 · answer #2 · answered by Pat 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
District of Columbia
2007-12-13 12:22:15 · answer #3 · answered by ? 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
District of Columbia
2007-12-12 21:15:33 · answer #4 · answered by McTraveller 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
District of Columbia
2007-12-12 21:06:49 · answer #5 · answered by The Drunken Fool 7 · 3⤊ 0⤋
District of Columbia. Today, this is used only to distinguish the federal "territory" from the several states.
2007-12-12 21:49:23 · answer #6 · answered by johnhdavisjrusa20 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
District of Columbia, to differentiate it from the ORIGINAL Washington, which is in Tyne and Wear, England.
2007-12-12 21:08:46 · answer #7 · answered by RichMase 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Oh man. A teacher really shot me down when i asked this in class. Really embarrassing but kind of surprising that the teacher stared at me with an open mouth for it... She's now a dean at another high school in my county, not surprised. @_@
District of Columbia.
2007-12-12 21:14:13 · answer #8 · answered by pyerzuka 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Drugs Capital :-)
2007-12-12 21:09:07 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Don't they teach anything in school anymore?
2007-12-12 21:11:55 · answer #10 · answered by King Of Battle 6 · 5⤊ 2⤋