IN USA yes. But in South africa no.
2007-12-12 18:36:23
·
answer #1
·
answered by woodlandhighgrad 2
·
1⤊
0⤋
The deal is that when the phrase originated it was ordinary to refer to black people as "colored". Usually, they would say a colored woman or colored man. It was considered more genteel than *****. Then black women began referring to themselves as a woman of color. Gave it more elegance and refinement. People of color is a generalization and can refer to all ethniticities other than caucasian.
2007-12-13 02:39:49
·
answer #2
·
answered by dallas 5
·
0⤊
0⤋
No, "people of color" does not refer only to blacks for the reasons you allude to.
I myself have skin the color of pale pink sugar cookies when they're in the oven and about half-baked (which this answer is).
2007-12-13 02:38:03
·
answer #3
·
answered by bmi=22 4
·
0⤊
0⤋
I think it's a dumb phrase. It's implying that some people are crystal-clear.
Racism and prejudice always begin on the linguistic level.
2007-12-13 02:34:45
·
answer #4
·
answered by Anonymous
·
0⤊
0⤋
no no no what this is meant for is so the color blind be able to know there is other then gray and blurred colors so the most distinctive color then should be black.... see there you go now stop it and go back to your seat.
2007-12-13 02:45:02
·
answer #5
·
answered by Anonymous
·
0⤊
0⤋
I say it would depend where you are. In one country, it may mean blacks, where another may mean all non-whites. Depends on the situation, one must use context clues.
2007-12-13 02:36:49
·
answer #6
·
answered by Mandie 3
·
1⤊
0⤋
it s referred to all non-whites
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/People_of_color
2007-12-13 02:36:01
·
answer #7
·
answered by megaherzfan 4
·
0⤊
0⤋