2007-12-12 16:40:14 · 4 answers · asked by sokrates 4 in Arts & Humanities ➔ Philosophy
What I mean by my question is whether Aristotle believes that all humans are equal to one another as humans qua humans. His writings indicate that he tends to believe that some humans are not equal to other humans as such.
2007-12-12 22:24:31 · update #1
he might, and that's a good question too, I mean some people are mean and some are nice, so YES some are more human than others and that question in its self could be seen either way
2007-12-12 16:51:14 · answer #1 · answered by nervousenergy73 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Most probably he won't but he would probably say that some humans are more moral than others.
2007-12-12 18:10:50 · answer #2 · answered by Poch_P 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No, but Rob Zombie did!
2007-12-12 16:52:35 · answer #3 · answered by Ste Bone 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I doubt it. He was more Intellegent than that. :)
2007-12-12 16:48:05 · answer #4 · answered by Joseph, II 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋