A couple has two girls and no sons. They want to have six kids. What is the probability of having all girls? I think the answer is 1/6, but I don't know how they got that answer.
2007-12-12 12:52:36 · 4 answers · asked by Lilly B 2 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Other - Science
The couple has 2 kids, both girls. In probability past event are past and not pertinent.
The what the chances of 4 kids all being girls, assuming twins & the like are not possible. 1 in 2, 1 in 2, 1 in 2, & 1 in 2.
1 * 1 * 1* 1 1
- - - - = -
2 2 2 2 16
So 1 in 16
2007-12-12 13:07:17 · answer #1 · answered by jon_mac_usa_007 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I think it'd be (1/2)(1/2)(1/2)(1/2)(1/2)(1/2)
multiply all those together because it's a (1/2) chance each pregnancy to have a girl-
2007-12-12 21:07:15 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
It would be one in 16 if only chance were involved (0.5^4). However, more large families run to all children being of one sex than one would expect if chance were the only factor. Some men may produce a predominance of sperm bearing the X chromosome; others produce more Ys.
2007-12-13 14:18:26 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
6 kids holy ****
2007-12-12 21:00:29 · answer #4 · answered by justin langlois 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋