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I know that if all of the partial derivatives of f are continuous at a and exist in an open ball centered at a, then f is differentiable at a. But I was told differentiabilty can be ensured under less stringent conditions. Is this true? If so, can anyone give such condition, please?

2007-12-12 09:23:31 · 2 answers · asked by Anonymous in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

2 answers

Yes, it's true. A less rigid condition that ensures differentiability of f at a is:

One of the partial derivatives exists at a and the other n -1 are continuous at a and exist in an open ball centered at a.

So, for one of the partial derivatives, all that's required is it's existence at a (just at a, it doesn't need to exist in a neighborhood of a). And for the other n-1, it's required continuity at a and existence in an neighborhood of a. Less rigid than the condition you gave.

I guess this condition I mentioned is not very known. It's proof is in Apostol book. It's not hard, you zig-zag in the open ball where n-1 of the partial derivatives exist, in steps parallel to the axis, and apply the mean value theorem, one-dimensional case.

2007-12-12 09:37:49 · answer #1 · answered by Steiner 7 · 1 0

Provided it is at a constant 350, than yes the constant will provide a stronger yet more viscous reaction. In essence F an A is relative to a lesser more deliquescent tangent

2007-12-12 17:29:34 · answer #2 · answered by Brimstone Halo 3 · 0 2

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