Can someone explain to me why this statement is true:
"A call option loses some of its financial leverage when the underlying share price rises far above the exercise price"
2007-12-12
06:44:52
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3 answers
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asked by
Janice
2
in
Business & Finance
➔ Investing
The way I understand this question is that a buyer already owns a call option. When the underlying share price increases significantly from the strike price, I do not understand why the leverage factor would be decreased.
For example, say I bought an option for $3 6 months ago. The strike price is $26 and now expires in 3 months, and the underlying current market price of the share is $55, why does this effect the leveraging in a bad way?
2007-12-12
07:10:38 ·
update #1
I can see how it would effect the re-sale value of the call option, but not the leveraging.
2007-12-12
07:12:43 ·
update #2