How is it possible that Frederick William, the Great Elector, had a son named Frederick I?

Question

In the same family, Frederick William I was the son of Frederick I. How is this possible?

Answer 1

Frederick William was the Elector of Brandenburg and the Duke of Prussia. His son was known as Frederick III while he was the Elector of Brandenburg, but when he became King of Prussia in 1701, he was crowned as Frederick I, because there were no kings in Prussia before him. His son, in turn, was the first King of Prussia to be named Frederick William, so he was crowned as Frederick William I...

Answer 2

The name has also been written King Frederick II William (because he's Frederick II and William I), just as the French king in the late 12th century went by Philip II Augustus for the same reason.

Royal names can be confusing. When Prince Charles becomes king of England, for example, he will probably be King George VII rather than Charles III (he has the option since George is one of his names- King Edward VIII was actually Prince David before he became King, and his grandfather King Edward VII was formerly Prince Albert).

Answer 3

The dad was the first King of Prussia named Frederick William.

The son was the first King of Prussia named Frederick.

Those are two different names, hence both were the first to use their respective names.

Answer 4

The Job of Elector had to do with his job as one of 7 Electors in the Holy Roman Empire. His son, however, was emperor. Like Al Gore's father was a senator, but he ran for (and could have become) president himself.

Frederick William, Elector of Brandenburg

had a son

Frederick 1 of Prussia

who had a son

Frederick William 1 of Prussia