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Read your constitition folks...Its not in there.

2007-12-11 12:07:26 · 7 answers · asked by spunn_out 3 in Politics & Government Law & Ethics

yurya2 - It CLEARLY means that the government can no longer interfere with church activities.

I guess the question really posed is why do people assume it to mean that people should be banned from praying in schools and God be stripped from public building? Why remove the ten commandments from the courthouse?
All that being done in the wake of "seperation of church and state" when that was not the intent of our forefathers.

2007-12-11 13:06:01 · update #1

7 answers

It was intencded to bar the establishment of a state religion, as so many European countries had. But in an overwhelming stretch of the imagination, it has somehow been interpreted as meaning that God is BAD.

2007-12-11 12:43:24 · answer #1 · answered by Tom K 6 · 1 1

> I guess the question really posed is why do people assume it to mean that people should be banned from praying in schools and God be stripped from public building? Why remove the ten commandments from the courthouse?
All that being done in the wake of "seperation of church and state" when that was not the intent of our forefathers.

That is easy if you have an open mind.

The 1st Amendment prohibits the establishment of religion.

Courts have always interpreted that to mean no favoring one religion over another, via funding or other means.

Since it is not possible to be equally fair to everyone - how would you even measure something like that, especially when some people have no religion at all, the only solution to the dilemma is to not partake of anything religious at all in order not to run afoul of the restrictions.

Luckily for folks like you the still leaves the other 99.99999% of the country that is not a government building free for your religious displays as you see fit.

And when you get right down to it, how cool is that? :)

2007-12-11 22:40:48 · answer #2 · answered by Barry C 6 · 1 0

The phrase "separation of church and state" is derived from a letter written by Thomas Jefferson in 1802 to a group identifying themselves as the Danbury Baptists. In that letter, referencing the First Amendment of the United States Constitution, Jefferson writes:

"Believing with you that religion is a matter which lies solely between Man & his God, that he owes account to none other for his faith or his worship, that the legitimate powers of government reach actions only, & not opinions, I contemplate with sovereign reverence that act of the whole American people which declared that their legislature should "make no law respecting an establishment of religion, or prohibiting the free exercise thereof," thus building a wall of separation between Church & State."

2007-12-11 20:14:54 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 2 0

Thomas Jefferson who wrote the Consitution was most explicitly outlined the nature of the US as a secular nation.

"Separation of church and state is a political and legal idea usually identified with the First Amendment to the United States Constitution, which states that Congress shall make no law respecting an establishment of religion, or prohibiting the free exercise thereof… The phrase building a wall of separation between church and state was written by Thomas Jefferson in a January 1, 1802 letter to the Danbury Baptist Association

The phrase "seperation" is not a word!

The founding fathers were Diests. Only the American Christian Mulas who want to live in a theocracy like Iran believe their is no seperation between church and state.

The "no religious test" clause of the United States Constitution is found in Article VI, section 3, and states that:

“ ...no religious test shall ever be required as a qualification to any office or public trust under the United States. ”

This has been interpreted to mean that no federal employee, whether elected or appointed, "career" or "political," can be required to adhere to or accept any religion or belief. This clause immediately follows one requiring all federal and state officers to take an oath of support to the Constitution. This implies that the requirement of an oath, even presumably one taken "So help me God" (not a part of the presidential oath, the only one spelled out in the Constitution, but traditionally almost always added to it), does not imply any requirement by those so sworn to accept a particular religion or a particular doctrine.

The clause is cited by advocates of separation of church and state as an example of "original intent" of the Framers of the Constitution of avoiding any entanglement between church and state, or involving the government in any way as a determiner of religious beliefs or practices. This is important as this clause represents the words of the original Framers, even prior to the Establishment Clause of the First Amendment.

Love it or leave it!

2007-12-11 20:22:53 · answer #4 · answered by Citizen1984 6 · 2 1

The phrase DOES exist. It is NOT in the constitution, and its original use has NOTHING in common with how it is usually used, but it DOES exist. On January 1, 1802, Thomas Jefferson wrote a letter to the Danbury Baptist Association that included the phrase "a wall of separation between Church & State." The context makes it clear the 'wall' is intended to protect the church from interference by the state. It is NOT intended to keep the church out of politics.

2007-12-11 21:18:57 · answer #5 · answered by STEVEN F 7 · 1 1

The First Amendment says, "Congress shall make no laws respecting an establishment of religion, or prohibiting the free exercise thereof; or abridging the freedom of speech, or the press; or the right of the people peaceably to assemble, and to petition the Government for a redress of grievances.

What do you think that first sentence means (up to the first semicolon)? The U.S. supreme court has well established that it means a separation of church and state. And for those who would like to establish a theocracy or a state religion they should look at other countries that have that. In Europe state sponsored churches are very poorly attended and in other countries theocracies lead to a complete loss of all personal liberties and an authoritarian or totalitarian rule. A separation of church and state is what allows religion to prosper and in a free society.

2007-12-11 20:36:33 · answer #6 · answered by yurya2 3 · 1 1

True, but the first amendment has the same basic meaning.

The phrase was used by Jefferson to describe how he envisioned the new country's government. If you actually read the federalist papers, early treaties and such you would learn most of the founder's were of the same opinion. The country was founded to be a secular haven for all freedom loving people.

People still use it because it's very clear and concise statement that expresses their opinion and that of a founding father. Some of them just don't do their homework.

2007-12-11 20:14:11 · answer #7 · answered by Weise Ente 7 · 3 2

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