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Does it indicated modernism or define decadent economic behavior? I believe it came into vogue in the 19th c.at a time of Empire building. Do Americans and Europeans share the same definition of this term?

2007-12-11 03:37:08 · 5 answers · asked by jb c 3 in Arts & Humanities History

5 answers

I would say it is a little arched or contrived to use it for America. For one thing it is a French phrase. "The gilded age" better describes American decadent economic behavior which progressive legislation and muckraking journalism had somewhat ameliorated by the end of the century . I would use it when describing European social and intellectual trends, especially artistic and literary, not foreign or even governmental policies such as empire building, the impetus for which had largely dissipated by the end of the 19th century anyway.

So I would say we share the same definition but it only applies to Europe because America had other concerns at the time which were too various to fall under such an umbrella-like word.

2007-12-11 04:00:12 · answer #1 · answered by Necromancer 3 · 2 3

It means "nikola s" will cheat to get best answer. He uses other ID's to vote for himself at least three times on every question. He should be reported. That's how he became a "Best Contributor", but he's a phony.

2007-12-19 10:35:04 · answer #2 · answered by Fred C. Dobbs 4 · 3 0

It just means the end of a century. The use of it is a bit unnecessary because about 90 % of the people you are talking or writing for have not been educated in French and it would blow over their heads.

2007-12-11 15:51:16 · answer #3 · answered by Polyhistor 7 · 1 3

It's usually used as a noun to mean the final years of the 19th century, or (with hyphens) as an adjective to describe the art and culture of that period.

2007-12-11 11:58:53 · answer #4 · answered by classmate 7 · 1 3

The gilded age, end of century

2007-12-18 04:02:12 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 2 2

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