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Hi
I really need some help about Plato views on womens ability to love. I am strugling to find examples except for the symposium, and I am lacking much of an argument to say they did have the ability! I also finding hard to understand how the framework in which plato writes affects his views and whether the views expressed is a failure on plato/socrates' fault to actualy find true love........
I have done lots of reading of journals and books, but still seem to be coming up against a brick wall so any help would be great!
Thank you in advance!
Katie
x

2007-12-10 02:22:19 · 2 answers · asked by Anonymous in Arts & Humanities History

2 answers

The Greeks of the time in certain areas, as is evidenced by their actions, thought that the highest form of love was man-for-man.

I don't know if they thought that women were incapable of it, but they thought that it was better between men.

2007-12-10 02:33:48 · answer #1 · answered by Yun 7 · 0 0

Check out The Republic, but you'll have to look a bit deeper, inferring from his stance on womens' fitness as guardians. Also, if you have access to JStor through your library's database searches, use it. It has full articles and an easy search engine

2007-12-10 03:26:36 · answer #2 · answered by philly 1 · 0 0

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