For the following question
http://imageupload.com/~imageupl/show.php/52027_DNAquestion.JPG.html
I think that it is none of the above because somatic cells cannot divide. But others are says it is not.
Does anyone know the answers. appreciate your help.
2007-12-09 11:41:58 · 4 answers · asked by sathi 2 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Biology
The answer is C, and here's the reason.
They tell us that a somatic cell has 16 picograms of DNA. That just means that the ordinary amount of DNA in a cell is 16 picograms.
Before a cell undergoes meiosis, the DNA is doubled in the S stage of interphase. That doubles the amount of DNA to 32 picograms. In metaphase I the homologous pairs of chromosomes are lined up on the equator of the spindle, but all the chromosomes are there and they haven't been separated at all. All 32 picograms of DNA are still there.
2007-12-09 11:47:08 · answer #1 · answered by ecolink 7 · 2⤊ 0⤋
Um I think that the question is just telling you that the somatic cell has 16 picograms of DNA and that the actual question is referring to the female's sex cells.
Well we know that during the first division of meiosis, there is 4n cells because the germinal cell originally had 2n but during replication, it duplicates to create 2x2n (or 4n).
At metaphase, the cell hasn't divided so there is still 4n.
We also know that since 2n = 16 picograms, n must equal 8 picograms.
Therefore 4n = 4(16) = 32 picograms of DNA!
There you go! I hope it helped!
2007-12-09 19:49:32 · answer #2 · answered by Cathy 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
The right answer is C.
2007-12-09 19:52:29 · answer #3 · answered by Akiya 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
that's why i quit bio lol!
2007-12-09 19:45:28 · answer #4 · answered by Jigga seeen! 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋