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I need to have some examples why rich, white men "ruled" America from 1754 to 1860. I would really like it if you included your sources (preferably a book), but I won't mind if you won't. I need an answer in the next three and a half hours. Thank you!

2007-12-09 10:31:37 · 2 answers · asked by Anonymous in Arts & Humanities History

Okay, okay, I get that there was no white supremacy but can you puh-lease answer my question?

2007-12-09 11:26:46 · update #1

2 answers

Until the 20th Century there was no such thing as White Supremacy in the world. "White men" ruled the colonies because "White Kings" sent the settlers to the colonies. The Black Slave trade was started by the Portuguese and the Dutch and they began to trade with the English at Jamestown in 1619. That trade continued until 1865 as the Union forces entered into Richmond at the end of the Civil War.

The Idea that there is some great conspiracy that Rich White men ruled the colonies by anything but the will of the Kings in Europe is nothing but a revisionist's view of history. It is an idea that the world would have been a great socialist utopia if it hadn't been for some mean rich men is not only wrong but it is ,in my opinion , obscene. It is the wrong way to teach history.

This can be seen in a rudimentary study of US History and books such as parts on the book Albion's Seed. You can read it.

2007-12-09 11:05:26 · answer #1 · answered by redgriffin728 6 · 0 0

Hate to disappoint you, but "white supremacy" did not exist. Now, if you mean "rich supremacy", why that has always existed and still does.
Even the Constitution did NOT grant rights to women or any one that did not own land; that was the key, owning land.
Many whites came here as indentured servants, meaning that they could be beaten, the women raped, and on and on.

2007-12-09 10:39:23 · answer #2 · answered by Nothingusefullearnedinschool 7 · 0 0

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