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If 2 unmarried people purchase a house together and 1 leaves, can that person's name be removed from the property deed, without their written consent?

2007-12-08 12:50:36 · 8 answers · asked by Diane C W 1 in Business & Finance Renting & Real Estate

8 answers

Since the title of the lot and the house belongs to both of them, transfer through sale can only be effected by proper document, e.g. deed of sale, deed of assignment, deed of conveyance, etc. , as the case maybe, if the other person is out of the country, that person can execute a Special power of attorney to give such power to the other co-owner to dispose said property. However, in your question, a property cannot be disposed off unless a legal document is executed as in the case above. In another instances though, that, if the real property of said property is unpaid for a number of years, the municipality/city/provincial government can auction the property to answer the taxes, even, without the consent of the owners. But, the owners can rightfully redeem the property still, within 2 years from the date of auction or from the certificate of sale.

2007-12-08 13:02:33 · answer #1 · answered by KRISTOFF 2 · 0 0

If a name is on the title of ANY property then they won it. Can somebody sell your car without your written consent? If you own something then to remove your name from the title you must sell that property in writing, why would a house be any different?

2007-12-08 13:13:08 · answer #2 · answered by Jerrold J 3 · 0 0

The real deed is in the registry office of the county . Writing on a copy of the deed will change nothing.

2007-12-08 13:32:04 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

NO! Because any legal document must be signed in the presence of a notary and the notary requires picture I.D. from the one signing a document. A person s name cannot be forged to a legal document and then have that document legally notarized.

2016-03-20 06:23:36 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Nope

2007-12-08 12:53:52 · answer #5 · answered by Big Deal Maker 7 · 0 0

No. And not from a mortgage loan either (it has to be refinanced).

2007-12-08 12:55:54 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

NOPE... sorry, but both parties have to be involved... it has to be notarized and stuff...

2007-12-08 15:56:24 · answer #7 · answered by idgaf 5 · 0 0

Absolutely not, unless they have died.

2007-12-08 13:18:54 · answer #8 · answered by godged 7 · 0 0

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