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Given that the Maclaurin series for f(t)=te^t is Ʃ(n)/n!, which should be right

if you could explain or give easy steps on how you did this so i can understand it when it comes time to test.

2007-12-08 08:36:52 · 2 answers · asked by Fibonacci01123 3 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

2 answers

The Maclaurin series for e^t is


Ʃ(t^n)/n!
n=0

so the Maclaurin series for te^t is


Ʃ(t^{n+1})/n!
n=0

Integrating this with respect to t gives


Ʃ(t^{n+2})/[n!(n+2)]
n=0

At the upper limit of integration, X, this sum is


Ʃ(X^{n+2})/[n!(n+2)]
n=0

and at the lower limit of integration the sum is zero, so the integral is given by


Ʃ(X^{n+2})/[n!(n+2)]
n=0

2007-12-08 08:52:15 · answer #1 · answered by Ron W 7 · 0 0

te^t = ∑ t^(n+1) / n!
∫ te^t dt = ∑ t^(n+2) / [(n+2)n!]

Applying the limits 0 to X, we get
∑ X^(n+2) / [(n+2)*n!]

2007-12-08 08:53:47 · answer #2 · answered by Dr D 7 · 0 0

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