After the slaves, the 15th amendment of the Constitution ratified in 1870 gave citizens the right to vote regardless of their race or previous condition of servitude. Women didn't get the right to vote until 1920 when then the 19th amendment guarantee the right of vote to anyone regardless of their gender.
2007-12-08 06:25:54
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answer #1
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answered by cynical 7
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2016-05-19 03:04:34
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answer #2
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answered by ? 2
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Women got the right to vote 70 years after the slaves did.
Although in the South they made state laws that prevented them from voting.
2007-12-08 09:14:33
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answer #3
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answered by Anonymous
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2016-04-22 19:20:36
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answer #4
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answered by ? 3
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After.
2007-12-08 06:10:22
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answer #5
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answered by Mitchell 5
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In the US, black men gained the universal vote before women of any race did. That's on a legal basis anyway.
In many states, however, black Americans saw the continuation of suppresion of their voting rights long after 1920, when women gained universal suffrage.
2007-12-08 06:12:36
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answer #6
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answered by Lynne D 4
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Technically yes, but in reality NO, especially in the South. Between Jim Crow laws and Poll taxes ( used to keep people from voting)...many blacks were still unable to vote. Poll taxes weren't eliminated until the 60's...I think.
2007-12-08 06:18:57
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answer #7
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answered by Run Lola Run 4
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yes some states got the right to vote after the civil war
2007-12-08 06:17:27
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answer #8
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answered by fred t 2
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2016-10-01 04:18:16
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answer #9
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answered by quellette 4
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Depends on which State you're referring to: In Florida and Ohio Democrats of any gender or race are ALLOWED to vote, but they are not guaranteed their vote will be counted.
2007-12-08 06:35:49
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answer #10
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answered by golfer7 5
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