2007-12-08
01:18:42
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8 answers
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asked by
Jubal S
2
in
Social Science
➔ Sociology
I don't know why I am labeled as "wrong", I was just posing a question.
2007-12-08
03:54:38 ·
update #1
Some of you do not understand my question it seems.
2007-12-08
03:56:00 ·
update #2
What does having a buzz cut have anything to do with it?
2007-12-08
06:10:07 ·
update #3
No one is. There is no such thing as a "hate crime".
The offensive act itself is the crime. Thought is never a crime. At least not in the United States as the founders set it up.
2007-12-08 02:41:23
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answer #1
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answered by gunplumber_462 7
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It depends on the Hate Crime legislation in their jurisdiction. Under US federal law, such a man could obviously still be the legal victim of a hate crime on the basis of religion or nationality. It is also possible he could be the victim of a hate crime based on race or gender. Other protections also exist at other levels of government.
In terms of non-legal-definitions, he could certainly be the victim of a hate crime - perhaps becuase of mental health, homelessness, gender expression, occupation (ex: soldier or veteran - attacking Vietnam Vets was a problem in some places in the US during that war's anti-war movement), disability, or many other categories.
People can be very cruel but what makes a crime a hate crime is that someone is trying to make a violent example of the victim to try to change the behavior of the victim (if they survive) and others (either of the victim's category or another). Such crimes can incite further violence against others of the category of the victim or of the attacker. This is why they are and should be given harsher penalties.
2007-12-08 04:03:59
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answer #2
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answered by Maverick 5
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I thought I'd give the FBI's background and definition of Hate Crime as they are often the agency that investigates said crimes.
Background: "Crimes of hatred and prejudice—from lynchings to cross burnings to vandalism of synagogues—are a sad fact of American history, but the term "hate crime" did not enter the nation's vocabulary until the 1980s, when emerging hate groups like the Skinheads launched a wave of bias-related crime. The FBI began investigating what we now call hate crimes as far back as the early 1920s, when we opened our first Ku Klux Klan case. Today, we remain dedicated to working with state and local authorities to prevent these crimes and to bring to justice those who commit them."
Definition: "A hate crime is a traditional offense like murder, arson, or vandalism with an added element of bias. For the purposes of collecting statistics, Congress has defined a hate crime as a "criminal offense against a person or property motivated in whole or in part by an offender's bias against a race, religion, disability, ethnic origin or sexual orientation." Hate itself is not a crime—and the FBI is mindful of protecting freedom of speech and other civil liberties."
So in short, white, conservative, heterosexual males are very much capable of being victims of hate crimes.
2007-12-08 03:53:24
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answer #3
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answered by Ronnieboy34 3
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Of course, anybody can be a victim of a hate crime. A hate crime is not just a race or sexual preference crime. A hate crime is a crime that is commited because the person hated something about you. It could be for anything, they didn't like the way you look or what you do for a living, or who you are dating... the list can go on and on.
2007-12-08 03:00:07
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answer #4
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answered by Vikki 4
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Yes. "Hate crimes" (which do exist, no matter what some guy with a buzz cut says) are criminal offenses committed for reasons of racial, ethnic, religious, gender etc. hatred, which, because of their motivation, are eligible for enhanced penalties under law.
2007-12-08 03:07:53
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answer #5
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answered by Hera Sent Me 6
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Absolutely. It has happened. They just don't call them hate crimes.
2007-12-08 05:37:38
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answer #6
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answered by Trina™ 6
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ANYONE can be the victim of a hate crime.
2007-12-08 07:15:17
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answer #7
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answered by ? 6
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No you are wrong!
2007-12-08 02:54:24
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answer #8
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answered by Anonymous
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