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You know, there are plenty of example, colour/color, aeroplane/airplane, etc etc...
What is the reason for this, and what do you think about changing the spelling of certain words of a language?

2007-12-07 14:25:43 · 12 answers · asked by Anonymous in Education & Reference Words & Wordplay

Yes Doris, it DOES sound like someone is stupid - you!Just another example of ignorance so don't answer questions you don't understand dear...






Yeah, I know the English language has been altered over the course of many years, but I just wondered why Americans altered it, I am not English, I just don't think a nation should alter a language to suit them, if they don't like it, they could've made up their own language or stuck to it..
Just like if another nation decided to take on French as their language and changing spelling - Not their language to begin with!
Haha yes I'll stop rambling now, that just annoys me!

2007-12-07 14:58:54 · update #1

12 answers

The two words you used as illustration are the British form of spelling these words .
I would be pleased if we as a nation took enough pride in our language and not tolerate the bastardization of words such as artic instead of it's proper spelling - Arctic , etc . . .
Happy & safe holidays ! :0)

2007-12-07 14:42:08 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 2 1

The English language is not original and has been handed down and developed from many languages and lineages over the centuries. Even the English of 500 years ago is not the same English we speak today, although it still resembles it in some fashion. I'd say that we Americans haven't necessarily altered the language as much as we've helped it evolve. As the Brits have evolved from using the words 'ye' and 'yore' in their common writings, the Americans have evolved from the longer, often times unnecessarily difficult, spellings of words in the English language and have made it easier for others to learn and spell as a second language. That and the Americans haven't really been too concerned with British opinion since, oh, about 1776 ;-)

2007-12-07 22:43:47 · answer #2 · answered by John 4 · 2 0

Languages evolve. Time and isolation cause an original language to split into new dialects, just as what happens in biology with subspecies and species.....

Actually, "color" was the commonest original English spelling. There was a fashion during the 18th century to make English words look more "French", and many words took on extra 'u's to follow this fashion. Webster was a traditionalist in this sense, although the standardisation of spelling took place somewhat independently on the two continents. (Yes I prefer -ise to -ize)

"Aeroplane" and "airplane" were both new coinings long after two main different English-speaking peoples separated and adopted standard dictionaries: Webster in the US and Johnson's and then the OED in Britain. The British version has a French influenced spelling and pronunciation: the Americans couldn't see the point of that.

2007-12-08 04:19:10 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

I am not from England or America, but I don't see why anyone can't adapt a language to suit themselves. They use it every day, why not be comfortable with it? Languages have been adapting themselves for thousands of years to suit the society which is constantly evolving. The only language which doesn't change is a 'dead' language, such as Latin.

2007-12-08 03:14:15 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

I don't know what part of the country you are from, but here in the South, we were taught to spell color just that way. And airplane just that way. I never saw colour in my life, nor aeroplane. Sounds like someone is stupid. Whoever is telling you this, don't listen to them, they are wrong! Plus, if they have a computer, they are not using their spellchecker!!!!!!

2007-12-07 22:52:21 · answer #5 · answered by doris_38133 5 · 0 0

Society slowly altering a language isn't a new concept. English, Spanish, and French all came from Latin. Do any of these languages look majorly like Latin? Or eachother for that fact?

2007-12-07 22:49:17 · answer #6 · answered by Will P 1 · 2 0

You can thank, for the most part, lexicographer Noah Webster, who wanted to remove some of the irregularities from the English spelling system, as well as to distance American English from British English.

2007-12-07 22:40:17 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

Whether it is language, dress, diet or social customs, people will adapt them to their circumstances as it is natural to do. "Wassup?" sounds far more suitable to a ghetto kid than "How do you do?" Whether it is England vis a vis the U.S., or France vis a vis Quebec, the Mother country will resent their offspring going their own way; but that has ever been the way of offspring.
Before the denizens of Knightsbridge take umbrage with a foreign nation 3 to 6 thousand miles away, I suggest that they go to the wilds of Cornwall, the Dales of Yorkshire, or the banks of the Tyne to standardize their language.
One of the greatest practitioners of the English language, Dr Samuel Johnson, used to make jokes at the expense of the Scots; but he respected their right to do their own thing.

2007-12-07 22:36:41 · answer #8 · answered by picador 7 · 3 1

I think it's laziness. Americans are so good at trying to simplify things. The English language should be taught & said exactly how it it,otherwise why don't they make up their own linguistics?

2007-12-07 22:32:54 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

If your question is about American spelling, the authority is Noah Webster (1758-1843). He standardized American spelling.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Noah_Webster

If this or another answer here proves helpful in your research, you can encourage good answers by choosing one answer as the "best answer."

Cheers,
Bruce

2007-12-07 22:40:36 · answer #10 · answered by Bruce 7 · 0 0

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