2007-12-07 11:35:06 · 11 answers · asked by Anonymous in Arts & Humanities ➔ History
Neither bad adolfie, nor Chamberlain, nor Daladier cared about that. They just gave the Sudetenland to bad adolfie, hoping that he would leave them in peace.
According to Goering, after they left, adolfie said, disgusted: "It is terrible. They are so useless "
2007-12-07 15:40:30 · answer #1 · answered by Der Schreckliche 4 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Hitler was concerned about the "legalities" of every act of agression he took. There was a non agression treaty existing between Germany and Czechoslovakia at the time of the occupation of the Sudentenland. That pact was never actually broken...
The Munich agreement was made without the agreement of the Czechs. They were presented with the agreement and told by the British and French to accept it or deal with Hitler on their own. They had no choice but to accept the deal which came with further guarantees by the British, French and Germans and Italians.
The Sudetenland was never part of Germany although it was part of the old Austro Hungarian Empire.
Even when the remainder of the Country was occupied it was at the written "request" of the Czech President, who was told that land and air forces were at that moment ready to invade. Signing would avoid bloodshed.
Technically, it was not illegal and did not break treaties. They had been superceded by the agreement at Munich. In reality the Czechs had been blackmailed by Hitler with the aquiesence of Britain and France.
2007-12-09 12:32:50 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
It was not a violation of any treaty per se and it was allowed based on the Munich agreement signed by Britain, France, Italy and Germany.
2007-12-07 11:45:07 · answer #3 · answered by xatsmann 2 · 0⤊ 1⤋
It violated the Treaty of Versailles.
2007-12-07 11:43:23 · answer #4 · answered by Horace S 2 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Yes. it violated the treaty of Versaille.
2007-12-07 15:13:21 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
Hitler was a maniac who did not give a flip about treaties.. he wanted world domination.. everything he did was ilegal..
2007-12-07 11:43:17 · answer #6 · answered by J. W. H 5 · 0⤊ 1⤋
It belonged to Czechoslovakia. He felt he was just taking it back. It was part of Germany until after WW1.
2007-12-07 11:43:04 · answer #7 · answered by Frosty 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
i guess he violated the treaty of Versailles. he is out of his head, so he do that
2007-12-07 11:57:25 · answer #8 · answered by pao d historian 6 · 0⤊ 1⤋
it violated alot of treatys and it deffinently wasnt legal
2007-12-07 11:40:43 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
No, because he was allowed to do it by the Munich settlement.
2007-12-07 16:48:36 · answer #10 · answered by gravybaby 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋