Exactly where does it say this in the Constitution?
2007-12-07 11:06:43 · 20 answers · asked by ♥ Mel 7 in Politics & Government ➔ Politics
It's stated in the First Amendment
The separation of church and state is a legal and political principle derived from the First Amendment to the United States Constitution, which reads, "Congress shall make no law respecting an establishment of religion, or prohibiting the free exercise thereof . . ." The phrase "separation of church and state", which does not appear in the Constitution itself, is generally traced to an 1802 letter by Thomas Jefferson to the Danbury Baptists, where Jefferson spoke of the combined effect of the Establishment Clause and the Free Exercise Clause of the First Amendment. It has since been quoted in several opinions handed down by the United States Supreme Court.[1]
2007-12-07 11:09:24 · answer #1 · answered by jay k 6 · 9⤊ 5⤋
There are actually two parts of the Constitution that are used to support the 'Separation of Church and State' principle:
-- Article 6
"The Senators and Representatives before mentioned, and the Members of the several State Legislatures, and all executive and judicial Officers, both of the United States and of the several States, shall be bound by Oath or Affirmation, to support this Constitution; but no religious test shall ever be required as a Qualification to any Office or public Trust under the United States."
-- Amendment I (Establishment Clause)
"Congress shall make no law respecting an establishment of religion, or prohibiting the free exercise thereof; or abridging the freedom of speech, or of the press; or the right of the people peaceably to assemble, and to petition the government for a redress of grievances."
2007-12-07 21:07:55 · answer #2 · answered by sagacious_ness 7 · 1⤊ 1⤋
The idea of "separation of church and state" is not found in the Constitution or any other founding document. It is a fabricated political statement jammed down the throats of the American people by people and organizations like the atheistic ACLU (anti christian lawyers union).
Someone has already explained that the phrase "establishment clause" refers to government deciding which christian denomination should be the official denomination in America. This was also the context of the famed letter to the Danbury Baptists.
Even a short study of early American history will reveal that Christianity has always played a major role in America. The founding documents are based on Biblical principles.
John Jay the first Chief Justice of the Supreme Court said that "America should prefer Christians for its leaders..." Does anyone believe that John Jay's interpretation of the Constitution was inferior to that of the atheistic ACLU? I think not.
2007-12-07 19:26:22 · answer #3 · answered by truthsayer 6 · 2⤊ 3⤋
The separation of church and state is a legal and political principle derived from the FIRST AMENDMENT to the United States Constitution, which reads, "Congress shall make no law respecting an establishment of religion, or prohibiting the free exercise thereof . . ."
2007-12-07 19:10:47 · answer #4 · answered by YouAreUniqueJustLikeEveryoneElse 2 · 5⤊ 3⤋
It doesn't.the others misinterpret the 1st Amendment.That meant no established denomination as in England,not a total rejection of it.But few people read the original writtings bak then that prove even the Deists and Masons had a profound respect for Christianity.And our laws are based on the Ten Commandments,not on Humanistic pottage.
2007-12-07 19:19:05 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 3⤊ 1⤋
It is derived from the first amendment "Congress shall make no law respecting an establishment of religion, or prohibiting the free exercise thereof, but is not written in the Constitution. That is attributed to Thomas Jefferson in statements he made early in the 1800's...
2007-12-07 19:13:03 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 4⤊ 2⤋
It may not directly say that in the constitution, but be glad that it exists in some form or fashion. If this country where to go to one denomination, or lets say certain leaders are allowed to make policy from their particular denominations, alot of people would be without things that make them laugh, ease stress, enjoy life, etc.
2007-12-07 19:45:01 · answer #7 · answered by David L 5 · 1⤊ 1⤋
Nowhere. It doesn't exist. It's a perverse ruling by the liberal supreme court and is propagated by the AntiAmerican Communist Liberal's Union.
When Madison was slaving away, trying to write the Constitution, Patrick Henry wanted a law requiring all men to belong to a given church and to pay tithing to said church in order to have the right to vote. Jefferson, Madison, and Jay thought this a bad idea. The English have such a law and a state sponsored church (the Church of England). Henry wouldn't let this one go so they convinced him to run for Governor for the state of Virginia. He did, won and had to give up his seat in Congress AND his say in the writing of the Constitution. Jefferson wrote the First Amendment and worded it specifically "freedom of religion" not freedom FROM religion. They were all (save three) devout Christians. Jefferson, later regretted that wording, and had to explain it many times. Too bad he's not still around today.
2007-12-07 19:17:40 · answer #8 · answered by Doc 7 · 2⤊ 7⤋
It's not in the constitution. It's in some old private letter of Jefferson's, having nothing to do with the government laws.
2007-12-07 19:14:25 · answer #9 · answered by blueruble 5 · 4⤊ 2⤋
Quite simply, it doesn't say it in the Constitution and those courts that have 'derived' it are extrapolating upon their own interpretations.
I say they were wrong and that our founding fathers NEVER intended God to be dropped from our political idealism - in word or, action.
2007-12-07 20:08:52 · answer #10 · answered by wider scope 7 · 2⤊ 3⤋