ok, this can sound weird, but when a man sucks a girls boob, what drives him to do so? Does it have anything to do with a baby desire of sucking his mom's boob, when he was a baby. You know like the Oedipus complex.
2007-12-07 07:15:19 · 10 answers · asked by Anonymous in Social Science ➔ Psychology
Nipples are most likely the major erotogenous spot both for women and men alike, and bitting and sucking is a way to increase the desire. But yes subconciously it can be a return to the roots.
2007-12-07 08:09:57 · answer #1 · answered by Airpole. 7 · 5⤊ 0⤋
Well the oedipus complex is the boy being in love with his mother and in competition with his father, not sure that applies here; if it were true then you could make the argument that girls give oral sex due to the electra complex. I am guessing you think the man has an oral fixation, which probably isn't true either. I would say it is something the women gets pleasure from so the man will keep doing it. They have also socially learned that women desire this so they do it. The man is seeking to pleasure the female, so anything that works they will probably do.
Freud has nothing to do with it and most of his theory is disreguarded in the psychological community.
2007-12-07 07:30:42 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 1⤋
Yes, I think it does. Oral sex, whether its above the waist, or below, is just a part of some peoples nature.
Some like to give in either instance, some like to receive. It's just part of being human.
In psychology it use to be thought, I don't know what the prevailing professional view is, that we all go thru first an oral stage, and then an anal one. All kinds of aberrant behavior is/was attributed to not having successfully passed thru these early stages of development.
I for one agree with you: it is reminiscent of - when a guy suckles a woman's breast - his performing the same action at his mother's, but for a different reason.
Wotan
2007-12-07 16:20:42 · answer #3 · answered by Alberich 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
haha that depends on how you look at it. If you're looking at it from a freudian point of view it could be true. However, freud relies on apparently invisible and unconscious thought, which cannot be observed and therefore cannot be proven to be true or false. The alternate explanation is that he thinks it will feel good to the girl, or has possibly seen or heard of it before so decides to try it.
2007-12-07 07:21:33 · answer #4 · answered by toothPASTE 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋
No deep meaning, we are desperately trying to turn you on, and partake in the forbidden fruit. Its like a great victory for our sexuality and hope of greater things to come. Its fun for both of us!
2007-12-07 07:33:11 · answer #5 · answered by Steve C 7 · 1⤊ 1⤋
I think you could right Barbie....I was thinking the same only the other day...There is a curious feeling of peace and contentment doing that..
2007-12-07 07:31:53 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
good thought, I'll run some experiments and get back to you.
(don't worry, I'll ask first)
2007-12-07 07:20:15 · answer #7 · answered by roflcopter_candytrain 2 · 3⤊ 1⤋
Nice question! Thanks for answers guys! Ha,ha It reminds me of a joke with a Mexican that goes: " If it is for your pleasure ok.,.. if it's for mine ..." do you know the joke? They'll delete it if I write it here..
2007-12-08 15:19:34 · answer #8 · answered by Is that all there is? 4 · 0⤊ 3⤋
yea maybe
2007-12-08 02:23:22 · answer #9 · answered by kp 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
for me, its a desire to please the lady im with.....i was not breastfed so I can't relate it to that....
2007-12-07 07:23:50 · answer #10 · answered by Jack J 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋