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True. In fact, we may make the more general statement that if f is any function whatsoever and g(x) is even then f(g(x)) is even. Recall that a function g is even iff g(-x) = g(x). But then f(g(-x)) = f(g(x)), so f∘g is even.

2007-12-07 05:40:25 · answer #1 · answered by Pascal 7 · 0 0

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