It seems that feminists believe that coercive social change is perfectly justified and apparently some believe that violence to ensure it is also necessary (note my other question linked below). To those who believe in coercive social change, could you weigh in on of the Roman Catholic Church's coercive conversions in the 16th and 17th centuries? Do you believe they were justified in coercing the natives into conversion? Why or why not?
http://answers.yahoo.com/question/index;_ylt=AiOVMK78kY6laa6jrfVKVRIYxgt.;_ylv=3?qid=20071207072656AAKb5CL
2007-12-07
04:29:47
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5 answers
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asked by
Anonymous
in
Social Science
➔ Gender Studies
Tracey: Once again thank you for answering a question that doesn't involve bodily fluids. However, you're a couple hundred years and a couple thousand miles off. The Catholic Church actually did use "soft coercion" (as you put it) in Latin America. The natives were required to convert, but the torturing you're thinking of occurred during the Spanish Inquisition (back in Europe).
2007-12-07
04:44:42 ·
update #1
Cassius: I'm not criticizing the Catholic Church here, but presenting a conundrum for the feminists (who hate few things more than the Catholic Church).
2007-12-07
04:46:06 ·
update #2
Cassius: To further clarify, if they opposed those coerced conversions on the basis that they were coerced, then they would be hypocritical in endorsing coercive tactics for their own cause. If they oppose them because they disagree with the foundations of the Catholic Church, then that would contradict their moral relativism/multiculralism (which is not universal, but is widespread among feminists).
2007-12-07
04:50:20 ·
update #3
smoofus70: Read up on your history. The Spanish Conquistadors (at the bequest of their government and in the name of gold) did the slaughtering. The Catholic Church did not. They coerced conversion in the same way feminism seeks social coersion.
2007-12-07
06:00:57 ·
update #4
RoVale: The Catholic Church didn't enslave the natives. Also, feminists don't seek "rights for themselves", otherwise there would be no male feminists and feminists wouldn't want rights for non-feminist women (which isn't the case). It can also be said that the Catholics sought to spritually free the natives. If we cut through your errors, it seems to me that you're OK with the Catholic Church's methods there and, in fact, endorse similar tactics with feminism. Is that correct?
2007-12-07
07:18:41 ·
update #5