I was married for 36 years with a good income, about $75k. The dissolution says I have to give my ex $1300/month. I now have the chance to go overseas and make twice that. My attorney says if I do, my attorney says she'll get a big bump, up to something like $4600. WHY is she entitled to a better level of living *after* the divorce? Where's the equity in that?
Yes, this is a rhetorical question. I'd also appreciate a citation in California law. This just seems wrong- if I do better, she gets to do better, even though the "better" is years after the divorce? Thanks ....
2007-12-06 18:30:43 · 5 answers · asked by going_for_baroque 7 in Family & Relationships ➔ Marriage & Divorce
JD pointed out that she might have stayed home raising my children, etc. She had a better job than I did. She turned down a really good job because she didn't want to move to Salt Lake City. She lost her job in 2001 and didn't look since then. What I asked for was a legal rationalization for why she should have something better than we had together. Seems to me, what I do *after* the marriage is up to me. And if that includes a better job, why is she entitled to more than the dissolution gave her?
2007-12-06 19:00:33 · update #1
I dont know but that sounds really messed up. I am sorry and what a way for the system to hold a man down from doing better for himself. she is not there supporting you so she should not get anything that has already been decreed in the first papers.Unless ins those papers it states that you have to pay more if you make more in the future but I dont know anyone who would sign something like that.
2007-12-06 18:36:10 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
Isn't the dissolution agreement good for a period of time....I believe 4 years? Until that time and at the end of the 4 years, she has to file for a Modification of Spousal Support if I'm not mistaken
2007-12-07 02:36:18 · answer #2 · answered by marincaligirl 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Well, women usually get spousal support when they didn't work during the marriage. Which usually means they were home taking care of YOUR children not "bettering themselves" as in earning an income or going to school. So for those years that she could have been advancing her income, she probably trusted that her marriage wouldn't end after being with someone for pretty much her whole life.
Spousal support is based on a guideline so a certain percentage of your income that she is accustomed to you providing for her, goes to her since she is likely unable to start over in a career. When your income goes up, her support goes up.
2007-12-07 02:48:38 · answer #3 · answered by Cindy 1 · 0⤊ 1⤋
That is very messed up! Maybe it would be cheaper to pay someone else to marry her.
2007-12-07 02:42:25 · answer #4 · answered by J D 5 · 0⤊ 2⤋
She gave you 36 years of her life. What's wrong here is your trying to weasel out of it.
2007-12-07 03:01:09 · answer #5 · answered by tjnstlouismo 7 · 1⤊ 3⤋