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2sin^2(x) + cos(x) - 1 = 0

thanks!

2007-12-06 06:41:02 · 1 answers · asked by Nate 6 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

cool yeah, I got the same thing but I didn't use the quad. formula.

Can anyone else verify?

2007-12-06 07:02:22 · update #1

you're answer's a little wrong and I think you forgot 240° tho

2007-12-06 07:04:02 · update #2

1 answers

as sin^2(x) = 1-cos^2(x)
=> 2(1-cos^2(x)+cos(x)-1=0
=>2cos^2(x)-cos(x)-1=0
as we known the solution for ax^2_bx+c=0 are

(-b+- sqrt(b^2 - 4ac))/2a here +- means + and -

so cosx = (1+-sqrt(1+8))/(2*2) = (1+-3)/4 = -1/2, 1

equating this x = (2*PI)/(3*n) and n*PI

here PI is phi and n=0,1,2,...

2007-12-06 06:55:12 · answer #1 · answered by harsha_kadi 2 · 0 0

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