Thomas Jefferson did indeed own slaves and he did want them to be free. This was a major contention with the states in the South, They would not ratify the declaration if this was to pertain to slaves.
He had a child by one of the Slaves and recognized the child as his own, I believe.
Thus the split between the North and the South, because of him the slaves were sett free in the North, but not the south this was the compromise that was reached.
This is how I remember it, I may have missed some key points.
2007-12-05 11:27:06
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answer #1
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answered by QBeing 5
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Massachusetts outlawed slavery in 1755! Until the peculiar institution was nationally outlawed in the rest of the other 12 colonies there was nothing for Thomas Jefferson to do about slavery since a large part of the agrarian colonial economy was slave dependent (but not the manufacturing north). So to appease the powerful slave owners of the Southern colonies without alienating the abolitionist North, Thomas Jefferson had to make the rational statement that 'all men are created equal' in future recognition that slavery could not continue and that the 'black' man was also equal, though not at that particual time in Jefferson's day.
2016-05-28 08:49:33
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answer #2
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answered by ? 3
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Because, like Benjamin Rush, who owned hundreds of slaves yet formed the first antislavery foundation with Ben Franklin, he knew slavery was wrong but he didn't know what to do about it. Often times slaves who were released were in worse condition than they were with their owners. People would not hire slaves, and most were recaptured or left homeless and starving.
2007-12-05 11:47:41
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answer #3
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answered by Anonymous
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People are s.hit head morons. You can quote me on that.
Just because blacks weren't "considered" human doesn't mean that they weren't human beings and that, because it was OK at the time, it must've actually been OK. Blacks were humans. *It was never, ever, EVER "OK" for anyone, particularly Americans, to own slaves.* *They were WRONG for it*. Even supposed genius/heroes like Jefferson were wrong, in spite of how much America worships the "singular hero" mentality.
But, of course, it's not just Jefferson's fault. More like the whole society's.
2007-12-05 11:31:24
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answer #4
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answered by Anonymous
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It is dangerous to say this, but some plantations were islands of safety for African Americans. Putting them out would sometimes have been almost the same as killing them.
I believe that is part of what was in Jefferson's mind, and that he was conflicted about it.
Edit: I'm not defending slavery, far from it. Jefferson is not free of the stain of slaveholder. It is still important to remember that he was one of the few political writers at that time who was willing to defend the humanity and intelligence of African Americans.
2007-12-05 11:24:10
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answer #5
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answered by KALEL 4
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Not every slave owner had the same type of cruelty mentality. You have to remember that back in the day, they didn't view slaves as equal to white people, thus the 2/3rds act, or 1/3rds, or whatever that was.
2007-12-05 11:20:54
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answer #6
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answered by Anonymous
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You have failed to grasp the fact that to him, in his era, the slaves were not men. The slave owners considered the slaves to be property, rather than people. You may note that in the same document that formed our country, there is reference to a black free man being counted as a partial man when it can to taking the census.
2007-12-05 11:22:09
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answer #7
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answered by Mcgoo 6
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The Republican party disagreed with Jefferson on many issues. ( Jefferson was a member of the second generation of Federalists )
James Madison ("Father of the constitution") started the Republican party because his disagreements with "2nd generation" Federalists.
James Madison also helped found one of the earliest abolitionist societies.
2007-12-05 11:21:50
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answer #8
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answered by a bush family member 7
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Sadly enough, he probably wasn't referring to slaves when he said that. Back in those days, slaves were not even considered human (thus the awful treatment of them). That is why they had absolutely no rights and were considered property.
2007-12-05 11:21:02
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answer #9
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answered by HachiMachi 5
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He had a well documented argument within himself between "heart" and "head". In the context of his time at least he was able to put words to what is right when few others did.
2007-12-05 11:24:11
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answer #10
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answered by rhino9joe 5
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