average
2007-12-05 04:04:33 · 4 answers · asked by Dumma 1 in Arts & Humanities ➔ History
This is actually an issue that is usually perceived incorrectly.
According to census information (I will admit this is later than the date provided, but is relevant to the question):
Less than 20% of the overall population had slaves.
Less than 20% had more than one slave.
So, there were few people that had a number of slaves on a plantation. The same study showed that most of the slaves did not work FOR their owners, they worked WITH their owner in the fields (since 80% could only afford a single slave).
2007-12-05 04:09:05 · answer #1 · answered by Yun 7 · 2⤊ 0⤋
It depended on the wealth of the plantation. Some households may have only had a handful of slaves. Others may have had hundreds.
2007-12-05 12:08:11 · answer #2 · answered by ningerbil2000 4 · 0⤊ 1⤋
three to four at a time...And also the offspring..or children
2007-12-05 12:14:11 · answer #3 · answered by shootingstars957 5 · 0⤊ 1⤋
lose your book?
2007-12-05 12:09:37 · answer #4 · answered by crazyladyandfuntimes 3 · 0⤊ 1⤋