Earlier I asked for a valid proof for
sinh x = [ e^x − e^−x ] ⁄ 2
cosh x = [ e^x + e^−x ] ⁄ 2
I was told, simply, that these are defined as such... that it has to do with the hyperbolic functions being "analogous" to the normal trigonometric functions.
I accept this as truth now. But can someone explain it to me? Demonstrate this "analogy". I am still looking for some sort of proof to this analogy or this relationship.
How does the mere definition of the hyperbolic sine function, as the opposite (y-coordinate) on the unit hyperbola, and the definition of sine, allow us to extrapolate this relationship? Exactly how do we go from sin x = [ e^(ix) − e^(−ix) ] ⁄ 2i to sinh x = [ e^x − e^−x ] ⁄ 2
2007-12-05
01:00:38
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5 answers
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asked by
Anonymous
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Science & Mathematics
➔ Mathematics
And dont give me the sin (ix) = i sinh x as a proof... because its not a valid proof
2007-12-05
01:02:09 ·
update #1
Many so-called "proofs" are not valid because they are not fundamental truths that form the basis of more complex relationships. Its merely a consequence of the relationship that can be illustrated
2007-12-05
01:03:27 ·
update #2
Thanks Cogito
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Rivet Gun... I appreciate your insight... but how do we get sinh x = [ e^x − e^−x ] ⁄ 2 from this definition? Based on that of sin x?
2007-12-05
01:33:54 ·
update #3