English Deutsch Français Italiano Español Português 繁體中文 Bahasa Indonesia Tiếng Việt ภาษาไทย
All categories

Ok,
My husband's ex-wife wants to go to court over a motorcycle...
She's the cosigner on it..
she hasn't made one payment on it and my husband pays it on time and in full.. never late.

My question.. can she actually get this in court?
We don't really care in a way because it's one less bill and we don't use it, BUT she's getting married soon.. so i think that is her motivation... then she'll sell it..
and honestly.. i dont think it's right for him to have put his money into it for her to profit off of it..
what would normally happen with something like this?..
any ideas?...

2007-12-03 04:24:30 · 5 answers · asked by steensagenious 2 in Politics & Government Law & Ethics

hmm only other detail would be that it's been well over a year since divorced.. so.. that covers any kind of alimony.. in North carolina..
They were divorced because she was sleeping around..

2007-12-03 04:34:00 · update #1

Other detail.. yes, she is an idiot. lol
This whole thing is ridiculous..
I just hate this because my husband works very hard for everything he has..

2007-12-03 04:35:49 · update #2

5 answers

Probably not, but the question is, whose name(s) are on the title? Being a cosigner does not confer ownership, merely the obligation to pay if the other cosigner does not.

If her name is on the title, from the facts you state, your husband should have no problem getting sole title to the motorcycle, if she is stupid enough to take him to court.

2007-12-03 04:33:50 · answer #1 · answered by thylawyer 7 · 1 0

This one's not playing with a full deck. The time to settle all property is before the divorce. You don't come back a year later and say, " Oh, by the way , I want this, too". Let her take it to court. It'll get thrown out, but it will still cost her and probably more than the motorcycle is worth. Sounds to me like her husband -to -be wants a free motorcycle.

2007-12-03 05:03:32 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

She can; but take the reciepts for the payments you've made and a copy of the title she hopefully isnt still listed on and tell her to get an atty and a fight in court will cost more than the bike is worth.

2007-12-03 04:35:44 · answer #3 · answered by wizjp 7 · 1 0

all property should have been solved when they talked to the mediator.if it went to him in the divorce then there is nothing she can do.but if for some reason it was suppose to be sold for the money to be split,or was suppose to go to her then you have a problem,even if he has been paying for it .take a look at the divorce agreements and that will give you a good idea.

2007-12-03 04:35:35 · answer #4 · answered by mr. y 5 · 0 0

If it is his EX, all property and financial matters should already be settled. Not sure why she would think she has any rights in this matter. Have you given all the info here for a better answer?

2007-12-03 04:31:46 · answer #5 · answered by sensible_man 7 · 1 0

fedest.com, questions and answers