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2007-12-03 02:11:42 · 9 answers · asked by fidelg 1 in Arts & Humanities History

9 answers

Nope - and neither did Francis Bacon:

"Shakespeare wrote screenplays for works of prose fiction and history chapters. He also re-wrote plays (including "Hamlet") that had been popular a few years earlier (similar to the person who wrote "The Preacher's Wife"). His screenplays are unequaled, but they did not require any specialized knowledge beyond the ability to read the English works on which they were based. The only thing Shakespeare's plays required of Shakespeare was his genius with the English language.

The 18th century saw the rise of modern playwrights who actually developed all the characters and plots in their plays. Judging Shakespeare by 18th century standards, the second edition Encylopaedia Brittanica made his authorship nothing less than miraculous, elevating Shakespeare's contribution above the reality that he was screenwriter (not original author), and denigrating the man himself to a state of complete illiteracy (made for a better story that way).

The 19th century rejected all miracles, including (beginning with Ms. Bacon) the 18th century miracle that an uneducated illiterate had risen to write the Shakespearian opera.

Modern scholars recognize that Shakespeare had an adequate education to have written his plays, that there is no evidence that he didn't write them, that the entire burden of proof is on those who maintain he did not write the plays, and that no such proof has been presented.

Shakespeare deserves the credit for what he did, just as everyone else deserves credit for his or her work. Or blame."

"Who really wrote Shakespeare's plays and sonnets? Edward de Vere, the 17th. Earl of Oxford? Francis Bacon? Sir Walter Raleigh? Queen Elizabeth I? Or a bright guy named...William Shakespeare.
Why is the authorship an issue?
Natural desire to know more about the greatest literary figure of all time.
More than we have?
Yes.
Why?
It's comforting to have everything fit better. To add more than we know. To speculate. To believe in a conspiracy. To counter a conspiracy claim.
Why do people think William Shakespeare wrote the plays?
Contemporary documentary evidence explicitly states that he did.
What types of documentation?
The First Folio, The Second Folio, dedication by Ben Jonson, publishers' registries, etc.
Did Ben Jonson know Shakespeare?
Yes.
Closely?
Shakespeare even performed in Jonson's plays.
Reliable witness then?
Couldn't get much better.

Why wasn't his name clearly associated with each play at the time of their publication?
It wasn't the custom. They were performances, not books. It's like today: You probably remember who acted in Sleepless in Seattle but can you recall who wrote it? Eventually, all the plays were collected and printed under Shakespeare's name."

For much more debunking, please go to link 2

2007-12-03 02:56:29 · answer #1 · answered by johnslat 7 · 0 0

Marlowe did not write hamlet but Shakespeare did
Shakespeare is no longer living but you can buy books and movies of the story hamlet

2007-12-03 02:16:45 · answer #2 · answered by shank 3 · 0 0

William Shakespeare wrote hamlet between 1599 and 1601

2007-12-03 02:15:55 · answer #3 · answered by Jessie is a Hardy fan 6 · 0 0

Shakespeare

2007-12-03 02:23:21 · answer #4 · answered by RT 66 6 · 0 0

Shakespeare did

2007-12-03 02:14:08 · answer #5 · answered by cz73 6 · 0 0

Conspiracies can abound, but my copy of Hamlet says he didn't.

2007-12-03 02:22:01 · answer #6 · answered by jared_e42 5 · 0 0

higher class

2016-04-07 05:35:24 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

No that was Shakespere

2007-12-03 02:14:19 · answer #8 · answered by Emme 4 · 0 0

'TWAS SHAKESPEARE!!!!!!!!!!

2007-12-03 02:14:51 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

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