2007-12-02 12:27:20 · 4 answers · asked by Anonymous in Science & Mathematics ➔ Geography
Basque still has to pay taxes and conform to federal laws in Spain, despite their otherwise autonomous nature. It's not the same thing as independence. You could have said the same thing about America in 1776.
2007-12-02 12:35:24 · answer #1 · answered by Mr. Taco 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
"Autonomy" means different things to different people. Clearly to at least some of the Basques, it's not enough. You might as well ask, "If Spain is willing to give the Basques autonomy, why not go ahead and give them independence?"
2007-12-02 12:31:08 · answer #2 · answered by TG 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Imagine being part of a small group of people occupying a small area of land that have survived as a separate people with their own unique language and culture, despite having been "conquered" many times over the last 2000 years. They perceive themselves as having a unique identity untied to any other ethnic groups or nationalities. They view themselves as a nation and don't want any "autonomy" that still carries a "leash" with it.
2007-12-02 13:16:20 · answer #3 · answered by David Bowman 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Because they want their own country. Autonomy is not enough especially when you still have to pay taxes and are subject to spanish law.
2007-12-02 12:44:07 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋