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"Objective" is something that is undistorted by personal or emotional bias, but yet are we capable of keeping such things 100% out of any interpretation we're likely to make in our lives? I have my doubts - I think we can get very, very close, but not 100%. How about you?

2007-12-01 15:07:46 · 5 answers · asked by uncleclover 5 in Arts & Humanities Philosophy

I say this because the only interpretations we can make are based on our own memories and perceptions of them. So many places for a little bit of bias to slip in, it seems impossible to shut it out completely.

2007-12-01 15:09:01 · update #1

5 answers

If you are going to be extraordinarily precise in your definitions, then I'll take a shot at nit-picking for you.

A single person probably is not capable of making an objective interpretation - though that person might make a relatively unbiased interpretation if they have no vested interest in the thing being interpreted. That might, however, also make them less qualified to do the interpretation. But please note that "objective" and "unbiased" are different in nuances.

If we allow a GROUP of people to make interpretations and iron out their differences, you could at least ARGUE that the sum of several honest interpretations would approach objectivity as the number of contributing people increase.

It is exactly for this reason that the international scientific community has turned to the process of multiple peer review in qualifying an article for publication. If enough different people read an article and think the author "got it right" then the article will be published. At that point, one can argue that the interpretation as as close to "objective" as possible.

2007-12-01 15:16:58 · answer #1 · answered by The_Doc_Man 7 · 0 0

Perhaps initial consciousness was objective interpretation, that is to say at the very moment you were able to make an observation it would be completely objective because you would not have prior experience to bias you. If that were accepted to be true then the answer would be yes but only if you have no access to prior expierence.

2007-12-02 00:34:41 · answer #2 · answered by mtheoryrules 7 · 0 0

Absolutely not. You can have varying degrees of subjectivity and intersubjectivity but whether it is one person doing the interpretation or a trillion, we never escape the confines of our linguistic conventions and conceptualizations.

2007-12-02 00:02:41 · answer #3 · answered by Matt 3 · 0 0

Interpretation is always subjective.It is ' type 'and 'nature 'of facts which provide degree of objectivity.

2007-12-02 12:49:47 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

In research, you are referring to qualitative measures. We value quantitative measure, but as you say, it is based on qualitative measures which are subjective, yet valid in and of themselves. You should work on a PhD, you are thinking like a doctoral student! Good-luck.

2007-12-01 23:14:26 · answer #5 · answered by hmmmm 7 · 0 0

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