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they ARE NOT... so which is it...?? & please only people who really have a clue on what their talking about please respond... Thanks !

2007-12-01 05:02:43 · 11 answers · asked by Jesus J 1 in Health General Health Care Other - General Health Care

11 answers

The active ingredients are said to be the same. Doctors are aware, though, that because of interactions between different binding agents, etc. (i.e. supposedly non-active ingredients) used by different generic brands (yes, they are brands) and the active ingredients when compared with other brands, not all generics have the same effect as the brands. Sometimes the generic can actually be found to work better.

Doctors should know whether this is the case, if you let them know the drug you need to have.

2007-12-01 05:12:21 · answer #1 · answered by Stag S 5 · 0 0

They are not the same, generics use different fillers that may not dissolve properly, this will cause the drug to be less effective. For example Vicodine has .5 to .10 mg's of the active ingredient hydrocodone, that's about the size of a pin head, but the pill is huge compared to that, without it dissolving properly the drug can pass right through you with little effect. If your in the U.S. then make sure your generic brand is U.S. made. Some pharmacies will buy from foreign soil and the pills can have defects. Being that I was on pain killers for a long time it is very obvious when you get a bad batch cause the pain doesn't go away. One time this happened and my doctor had to flush my pills with a witness and file some paper work in order for me to get a different script. When I first told him he just shook his head and said "yea, this can happen". Avoid prescriptions from Canada & Mexico.

2007-12-01 13:18:05 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Some are the same some are not
In brand or generic the same chemical is used as the active ingredient. At one time, years ago, Boots Pharma was the only prime manufacturer of ibuprofen...now who knows the manufacturers... read the label on over-the-counter drugs and you will see "distributed by..." or "manufactured for...". that means the label does not identify the manufacturer.
Processing is sometimes different as to which fillers or chemical carriers are used. That is why one product may work better than another even though the active drug is the same.

2007-12-01 13:28:24 · answer #3 · answered by fretochose 6 · 1 0

I heard this from one of my physicians as well and I checked it out because I need to save every penny I can.
It is true that generics and brand-names are NOT necessarily equivalent.
Philip Janicak, M.D., a psychopharmacologist at Rush University Medical Center explains what is happening in this article:

"Janicak explained that Food and Drug Administration (FDA) requirements around bioequivalence of generic products are fairly strict: a generic must have between 80 percent and 125 percent bioequivalency to its name-brand product—a window of 20 percent less or 25 percent greater potency.

"Generally, that kind of variation is not going to make a difference in terms of efficacy or toxicity," Janicak said. "But imagine a large pharmacy that negotiates with different generic manufacturers and buys a generic formulation from one manufacturer that has 80 percent bioequivalency to the name brand. Then imagine the pharmacy switches manufacturers to one that markets a generic that has 125 percent bioequivalency.
http://pn.psychiatryonline.org/cgi/content/full/42/11/17-a

"That's a 45 percent difference in bioequivalency that theoretically can make a significant difference for the patient," he explained. "If it's a downward shift, it could affect efficacy; if it's an upward shift, it could affect toxicity.'"

Also inert materials in compounds can cause an allergic reaction in some people the doctor stated.

The article also notes:
"the Office of Generic Drugs (OGD) at the FDA said the agency is attentive to reports of potential nonequivalence of formulations. "
The OGD further claims that TYPICALLY the difference is not 80-125%, but closer to 4%. Clearly that is not always the case--and physicians would know from their own experience or their colleagues when there are "problem meds" out there in some cases.

2007-12-01 13:15:41 · answer #4 · answered by heyteach 6 · 0 0

Generic and brand names are the same.
Ex. Acetaminophen is generic and otherwise known as Tylenol, same with Acetylsalicylic Acid which is generic and the brand name of Asprin. There are tons of different names for the same drug depending upon which country you live in or are from.

2007-12-01 13:08:58 · answer #5 · answered by missladyabug 1 · 0 0

Generic drugs are just a copy of brand name drugs given to you at a lower cost. You can find the info about the difference at this web site. I've always taken generic prescriptions and I can't tell any different.

2007-12-01 13:09:06 · answer #6 · answered by Nikki 6 · 0 0

Sometimes, generic versions of a drug have different colors, flavors, or combinations of inactive ingredients than the original medications.
Generic drugs are copies of brand-name drugs that have exactly the same dosage, intended use, effects, side effects, risks, safety, and strength as the original drug. In other words, their pharmacological effects are exactly the same as those of their brand-name counterparts.
I would trust my doctor's decision of generic drugs.

2007-12-01 13:14:53 · answer #7 · answered by Tenn Gal 6 · 0 0

I think it depends on the type of medications...I have had nasseau medication that worked just as well as brand name and pain medicine that did nothing compared to name brand.

2007-12-01 13:05:57 · answer #8 · answered by Bailey W 3 · 0 0

OTCs like Tylenol and Advil are the same as the generics.

2007-12-01 13:06:53 · answer #9 · answered by Lauren 5 · 0 0

In general, they really do have the same function. For all practical purposes they are exactly the same.

2007-12-01 13:08:38 · answer #10 · answered by PlaNet_G0rk 4 · 0 0

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