English Deutsch Français Italiano Español Português 繁體中文 Bahasa Indonesia Tiếng Việt ภาษาไทย
All categories

Or do only the laws apply for illegal posession and use of medicine, drugs ?

2007-12-01 04:54:08 · 26 answers · asked by Anonymous in Social Science Gender Studies

I agree its assault, among other things but is it murder ? Somebody who performs an abortion doesnt commit murder, so why should somebody be charged with murder for something that is essentially an abortion ?

2007-12-01 05:01:34 · update #1

Army I can imagine that if the gf is "on the pill" and she still gets pregnant and he can see that it wont work out and hell be stuck with child support and no family, he might give it a shot to set it straigh again with the pill.

2007-12-01 05:14:25 · update #2

I agree on illegal but should it be punished the same as murder, or the same as slippin you ecastasy ?

2007-12-01 05:19:17 · update #3

Professor I deleted my other question because people kept telling me its illegal. Slipping a persona any unprescriped drug of any kind is illegal anyway, but would it be murder in this case ?

2007-12-01 05:22:38 · update #4

26 answers

It's not murder, but it is wrong, and probably criminal.

It's always wrong to do things to others against their will.

2007-12-01 07:39:32 · answer #1 · answered by tehabwa 7 · 0 3

Any time a man (father or not) is involved in any way other than financial, that results in the death of a fetus, he is guilty of homicide.
Legally, women are professional victims and thereby not guilty of the same crime in any instance.

At best it should be dispensing prescription medication or perhaps practicing medicine without a license but taking it to homicide is too much considering that the mother has the right to kill it for no reason whatever.
On one hand it is no more serious than squeezing a pimple (for mothers) while on the other hand the fetus at any stage is a person and killing it is homicide (anyone except the mother).

In most states, Texas included, if the mother is on the way to the abortion mill to end the life of her unborn child and is attacked and the fetus is killed, the perpetrator will likely be charged with homicide. Even if she is involved in a traffic accident in the parking lot of the abortion clinic and the fetus dies, the other driver very well may be charged with manslaughter. That is how far away from logic feminist demands have gotten.

The correct term is "hypocrisy", but who's counting? As long as women get rights without responsibility, SOME women are happy.

2007-12-03 03:13:09 · answer #2 · answered by Phil #3 5 · 0 0

Where do you come off making such a choice for someone else???
If you do this I hope you get caught, and charged. Even if you don't get caught, you will be judged by God someday. Remember there is other judgement than here on Earth.

HEY no need to tell me about that....I did get pregnant while on the pill, my doctor never told me about the medication reducing the effects of the pill...9 months later I had a wonderful baby boy, and guess what? I made the choice for myself that I couldn't murder my child that I was carrying...so I did what I had to do....that was to work 2 jobs to support myself and my son, and had enough pride to do it that way and not get help from the government, and no I really didn't see child support. So don't tell me about it. I would never think of taking anyone's life. Remember it is not the unborn child's fault. You gotta roll with the punches that life gives, and make the best.

2007-12-01 05:02:31 · answer #3 · answered by army_sister71 4 · 1 0

I don't think you can cause an abortion by slipping someone one pill. The only abortion drug I know of, RU-486, only works in the first nine weeks of pregnancy and it requires multiple doses for the drug to work. That's why I don't think slipping a woman a single pill will work.

2007-12-01 05:42:59 · answer #4 · answered by RoVale 7 · 0 0

Murder is defined as the intentional and malicious killing of a person.

As the personhood of an embryo is not even generally agreed-upon in our society, and is therefore entirely arbitrary, the requirement for murder is not met.

Also, as the INTENT of an abortion is not to kill the embryo, but to end the pregnancy, the requirement for murder is not met.

2007-12-03 07:46:47 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

That would certainly be a big debate if this ever landed in court. I'd say at the very least it would be an act of assult or manslaughter. Yes, it is illegal to possess any perscription drugs without a perscription from a doctor in your name. Using illegally obtained drugs by spiking someone's drink takes it into the area of a FELONY.

The prospect of causing someone to miscarry is completely immoral and unethical, and it takes a really special kid of psychopath to do such a thing. Anyone who would do this should have been aborted by their own mother.

2007-12-01 05:00:50 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 2 2

<> merely because of the fact something it criminal would not recommend that's precise. <> there's a reason you won't be able to spell 'anticipate' with out '***'. people who anticipate too a lot finally end up making asses of themselves. <> would not make experience, does it - and yet, there you're advocating human beings purely anticipate the government is stable! <> incorrect! <> advert hominem assaults harm your credibility. perhaps Marc, like me, would not see too a lot interior the way of credibility while examining your question. <> The term "fetus" actually means "the greater youthful interior the womb". The fetus IS a residing person. existence starts off at thought, not start nor some arbitrary element in between. for this reason, each abortion constitutes the homicide of an unborn person. <> however the fetus IS human. for this reason, abortion IS homicide. <> what's so narrow minded approximately acknowledging the unborn for the residing human beings they're? on account which you're actually unable to try this, does not that recommend your strategies is in fact greater narrow than mine? <> That merely is going to teach how schizophrenic human institutions may well be - and you prefer to anticipate such an employer (the government) is stable.

2016-11-13 03:42:06 · answer #7 · answered by tameka 4 · 0 0

At least in Texas, it is illegal to abort a baby without the mother's consent. This means that if you shoot a pregnant woman, you can also be charged with the death of the fetus.

2007-12-01 07:48:00 · answer #8 · answered by Rio Madeira 7 · 2 0

Of course it is. Just like kicking a woman in the stomach is murder, if it results in miscarriage. Terminating a pregnancy is only legal if it is done by the pregnant woman, under a doctor, in the first trimaster.

2007-12-01 07:29:33 · answer #9 · answered by jrawls 2 · 2 0

Typically, it depends on how far along she is. Where I live for example, it would only be murder if the unborn child could sustain life outside the womb at that point. In that case, the accused would only be charged with the assault delivered to the woman.

2007-12-01 06:28:36 · answer #10 · answered by [Rei] 5 · 0 2

I just saw a story about this on the news and the guy was charged with murder! it is only murder in some states! but i would consider it murder!!

2007-12-01 04:56:36 · answer #11 · answered by Sweet Sam! 3 · 3 1

fedest.com, questions and answers