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Does anyone know the differences and similiarties between Japan's growthof feudalism and the Europe's?

2007-12-01 01:23:09 · 2 answers · asked by TwiLight* 3 in Arts & Humanities History

2 answers

Japan had a unique take on feudalism, which I attribute to there isolation as an island nation.
You may know that the word samurai means to serve, so as spreedog says the warrior class answered to the shogunate or political nobility of Japan. Japan had an organized hierarchy of power with the Nobles at the top, Daimyo being the highest up until Japan was unified by their first emperor, and the samurai next on the social ladder. Under them was the merchant class, then I believe the builders, then the farmers, my memory is a little fuzzy.
Similar to European knights receiving tracts of land and serfs to work it in exchange for protecting their lord, the samurai enjoyed tax exemptions, free food, and the right to carry a sword.
I would say that Japan was the greatest example of feudalism, considering they used the system for longer than anyone, not just through the dark ages.

2007-12-01 02:39:26 · answer #1 · answered by sweetwatersd 3 · 0 0

Wow. I think you will find more similarities than differences. Feudalism was a minority of strong men dominating the majority of non-military, weaker men with women as second class citizens. It was all about might. The warriors in Europe were initially delegated the responsibility of protecting the workers who were mainly farmers providing the food along
with a lesser number of builders providing the shelter.
In time, the warriors (knights) forgot they were working FOR
the farmers and builders and began to dominate / oppress them. Why? - - because they could, and humans do tend to be selfish.
I am less sure how the warlords and Samurai evolved in Japan, but I'd bet others will add this info for us.
Good question.

2007-12-01 01:34:12 · answer #2 · answered by Spreedog 7 · 0 0

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