That all recent studies have shown that there is NO sperm present in pre-ejaculate? That it is made by the Cowper's Gland for the purpose of lubrication and that the ONLY time sperm would be present is under the following condition:
The man ejaculated previous to the sexual experience at hand, did NOT urinate in between (as this would flush the urethra) and therefore some remaining sperm from the previous ejaculation COULD be flushed out in pre-***. In this case, the motility and number of active sperm are in fact drastically lower than the amount present in men considered to be infertile.
Doctors of this study theorize that any pregnancy as a result of "coitus interuptus" or the pull out method are due to improper use of this method - in other words - oops, they didn't pull out in time either knowingly or unknowingly.
2007-11-30
08:38:09
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4 answers
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asked by
slushpile reader
6
in
Health
➔ Women's Health
http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/sites/entrez?db=pubmed&uid=12286905&cmd=showdetailview&indexed=google
http://www.fwhc.org/birth-control/withdrawal.htm
http://72.14.253.104/search?q=cache:AI_TXKn7VhoJ:www.cdc.gov/reproductivehealth/Products%26Pubs/Africa/Chap_19.pdf+no+sperm+in+pre+ejaculate+studies&hl=en&ct=clnk&cd=2&gl=us&client=firefox-a
2007-11-30
08:39:57 ·
update #1