In the Sean Taylor case, I don't think they were trying to kill him, but he died after being shot in the leg. Can the thugs who did it be charged with murder?
2007-11-30 05:52:12 · 22 answers · asked by Anonymous in Sports ➔ Football (American)
I believe 2nd degree murder or manslaughter.
2007-11-30 05:57:03 · answer #1 · answered by jeffwar03 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋
In the Taylor case, its murder 1 in most states, regardless of intent. The reason is that in most states murder during the commission of robery or a home invasion is murder 1. Now if it can be established that the killer entered into the home of taylor with a gun and that he believed taylor was home he is committing a home invasion. Therefore, intent is not required. In most cases, this would be a murder 2 if they can prove he did not mean to kill Taylor.
Your other question just in general:
If a criminal shoots someone in the leg, not intending to kill, but they die, can you be charged with murder?
Barring home invasion or armed robbery, Yes, typically in a case like this Both murder 1 and 2 are available to the jury. Murder 2 does not require premeditation and intent in that circumstance is not relevant and that is typically what someone would be convicted of.
2007-11-30 14:32:06 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Everyone is forgetting something here. The murder occurred during the commission of a felony which makes even the death penalty a possibility. I doubt they'd get that, but it will be Murder 1 for sure.
Besides, how do we know he wasn't trying to kill him? Maybe the guy was just a horrible shot or Sean was moving.
weeder
2007-11-30 15:46:06 · answer #3 · answered by weeder 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Depending upon the statues of limitations they can be charged with murder if the person dies from the condition caused (in this case the gun shot wound) within one year from the time the condition was inflicted.
Some murder cases (those showing clear intent) do nothave a statue of limitations and can go to court any time after the crime has been committed.
2007-11-30 14:04:51 · answer #4 · answered by Darin C 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
What do you mean "a criminal"? Someone who has a record or someone who is actively committing a crime?
What do you mean by "not intending to kill"? They were just trying to teach them a lesson or it was an accident or apparent self defense?
I guess means this is about Sean Taylor the case is "actively committing a crime" and "trying to teach them a lesson".
If you are actively committing a crime and anyone dies you are liable. You could be breaking into an old ladies house to find some food and if you surprise her and she dies of a heart attack you are liable.
Nuff said.
2007-11-30 14:04:28 · answer #5 · answered by donfolstar 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
This an example of American justice. As mentioned, he may not be charged with first degree murder as he had no intention of killing the person. Heck, when all is said and done he may only get unintentional manslaughter or what ever it called. Spend 5 years in prison or less and get out on Parole. But, it all in how the Lawyers play their cards. I know people not believe me, and that OK, but, this how it works. We see it all the time on the News.
2007-11-30 14:05:13 · answer #6 · answered by Snaglefritz 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Yeah, that's murder. Anybody that was with the gunman in the house can be charged with murder - whether they pulled the trigger or not. They were in commission of a felony when a murder occurred, and thus anyone involved can be charged with the death.
2007-11-30 16:17:48 · answer #7 · answered by DoReidos 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
In the state of Florida, yes he will be charged with Murder.
2007-11-30 14:59:48 · answer #8 · answered by furb_nasty 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
He shot him, he died. Murder. If he didn't have a gun he wouldn't have shot him an therefore he wouldn't have died.
But he had a gun, he shot him, he died. Case closed. Doesn't matter what the intent was. Guns don't kill people, people do.
2007-11-30 16:17:04 · answer #9 · answered by ego_maniac 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Firing a gun at someone is an attempt of murder. You don't reward someone for being a bad shot and give them a lesser charge.
2007-11-30 14:06:02 · answer #10 · answered by jpayne1324 5 · 3⤊ 0⤋
It would not be 1st degree murder. I'm sure the D.A. will charge that person with manslaughter and other slew of charges including robbery, firearms, breaking and entering, etc. etc.
2007-11-30 15:16:04 · answer #11 · answered by TheCoffeeDiva 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋