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2007-11-30 03:20:40 · 8 answers · asked by mouser 1 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

8 answers

[07]
2^(1+2x)=32
2^(1+2x)=2^5
Both sides are having the same base.Therefore,
1+2x=5
2x=5-1=4
x=4/2=2 ans

2007-11-30 03:25:31 · answer #1 · answered by alpha 7 · 2 1

2^(1 + 2x) = 32
-> 2 * [2^(2x)] = 32
-> 2* (4^x) = 32
-> 4^x = 16
-> x = 2

That is the answer to this problem. If you have general problems regarding the concept, drop me a note.

2007-11-30 11:26:32 · answer #2 · answered by Akilesh - Internet Undertaker 7 · 1 1

Or, without logs, you can do it this way...

2^(1 + 2x) = 32

32 can also be written as 2^5

so, now you have...

2^(1 + 2x) = 2^5

Since they have the same base (2), you can just work with the exponents.

1 + 2x = 5
2x = 4
x = 2

2007-11-30 11:26:12 · answer #3 · answered by Mathematica 7 · 2 1

2^(1 + 2x) = 32

1 + 2x is the exponent (logarithm) given to 2 to get 32.
1+2x = log (base 2) of 32
1 + 2x = ln 32 / ln 2 {natural logs}
or
1 + 2x = log 32 / log 2 {common logs}
Either way,
log 32 / log 2 = 5.

1 + 2x = 5
2x = 4
x = 2
CHECK IT!
IS 2 ^(1 + 2 * 2) = 32?

2007-11-30 11:26:43 · answer #4 · answered by Hiker 4 · 1 1

2^5 = 32
2^(1 + 2x) = 32

1 + 2x = 5
2x = 4
x = 2

2007-12-03 17:34:38 · answer #5 · answered by Como 7 · 1 1

2^(1+2x)=2^5
1+2x=5
2x=4
x=2

Check:
2^(1+2(2))=32
2^(5)=32
32=32

2007-11-30 11:28:16 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

answer 2

2007-11-30 11:26:23 · answer #7 · answered by programhelp 2 · 2 0

Using logarithm .

(1+2x)ln2=ln32
1+2x =ln32 /ln2
2x=ln32/ln2 -1
x=((ln32/ln2)-1)/2
x=2

2007-11-30 11:24:35 · answer #8 · answered by Murtaza 6 · 3 2

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