false, both limits are zero
the first one does go to zero faster than the second one, but they are both eventually zero
2007-11-28 23:42:10
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answer #1
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answered by Anonymous
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Calculate them explicitly. Both are equal to 0. Hence they're equal.
WHY are they both 0, you ask? Well, they're both uniformly positive and bounded above by 1/k. And 1/k goes to 0 because you can make it forever be less than epsilon just by waiting until k gets to be > 1/epsilon.
2007-11-29 19:09:00
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answer #2
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answered by Curt Monash 7
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TRUE, it is less than because the k^2 absolutely swamps the 2k in the denominator as k ---> infinity and it becomes 1/k^2 < 5/k^2
Obviously both go to zero but the first term gets there faster
2007-11-29 07:48:24
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answer #3
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answered by oldschool 7
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This is FALSE! Both limits are 0.
To see this try plugging larger and larger
values of k into each one. Both get smaller
and smaller as k gets arbitrarily large.
So both can be made as small as you like
if k is large enough.
2007-11-29 09:02:41
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answer #4
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answered by steiner1745 7
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FALSE: Even if it is coming from god instead of these calculator-dependent "smart math people".
Both limits are zero and hence equal.
2007-11-29 08:26:33
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answer #5
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answered by uk_wildcat96 2
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Lim k-->â [1/(k(k+2))] < lim k-->â[5/(k^2)] - true
Lim k-->â [1/(k^2+2k))] < lim k-->â[5/(k^2)] - true
2007-11-29 07:33:55
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answer #6
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answered by imieazmi 2
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if you evaluate, the limits can not be determined exactly.
but i guess this is true, cuz on the left side you get a ->0/->0 form, on the right side you get a 5/->0. and then 5/->0 is obv greater than ->0/->0
2007-11-29 07:37:47
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answer #7
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answered by Sahil 2
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True
2007-11-29 07:37:29
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answer #8
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answered by Jeff M 2
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true
denominator on the left is greater than on the right
value on the left is less than that of the right
2007-11-29 07:41:15
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answer #9
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answered by CPUcate 6
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IT is true.Just have a look at the graphs of these two equations.
http://akipic.com/uploads/6767e04fcd.jpg
2007-11-29 08:05:58
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answer #10
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answered by Aabhas S 2
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