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Why does r = 1/ [sin(theta) - cos(theta)] become y - x = 1

2007-11-28 19:56:10 · 2 answers · asked by jeff h 1 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

2 answers

r = 1 / [ sin θ - cos θ ]
x = r cos θ = cos θ / [ sin θ- cos θ ]
y = r sin θ = sin θ / [ sin θ- cos θ ]

y - x = ( sin θ- cos θ ) / (sin θ- cos θ )
y - x = 1

2007-11-28 20:47:04 · answer #1 · answered by Como 7 · 1 1

r = 1/ [sinθ - cosθ]
r[sinθ - cosθ] = 1
rsinθ - rcosθ = 1
but
rsinθ = y
and
rcosθ = x
so
y - x = 1

2007-11-29 04:20:41 · answer #2 · answered by Helmut 7 · 1 1

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