2007-11-27 14:05:21 · 4 answers · asked by Anonymous in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
no for 2 reasons
1. 2 is the only prime even number
2. all even numbers are divisible by 2
2007-11-27 14:10:53 · answer #1 · answered by Plain Silly 4 · 2⤊ 0⤋
No. Two numbers are said to be relatively prime if and only if their greatest common factor is 1. However, a number is even only if it is divisible by 2, i.e. it has a factor of 2. But if two numbers each have a factor of 2 (both even numbers), then their greatest common factor is either 2 itself or divisible by 2, so it is not the case that their greatest common factor is 1, i.e. they are not relatively prime.
2007-11-27 22:14:48 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
No, because both are divisible by 2. Relatively prime
integers have no prime factor in common.
2007-11-27 22:19:57 · answer #3 · answered by steiner1745 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
no, because all even numbers are divisible by 2.
2007-11-27 22:08:34 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 0⤋