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And etc?

I, as a native English speaker, can tell contextually when one sounds right and one wounds wrong, but is there a real grammatical difference?

2007-11-27 10:04:29 · 11 answers · asked by Anonymous in Education & Reference Words & Wordplay

*typo* sounds

2007-11-27 10:04:56 · update #1

Yea, I figured the formal thing, which I do subconsciously lol.

2007-11-27 10:12:01 · update #2

11 answers

I dont think so. I always try to use it is and do not when I want to sound formal or professional, but they mean the same thing.

2007-11-27 10:12:57 · answer #1 · answered by his_grace2810 4 · 2 0

I've always wondered this...
I mean I'd say:
"Why don't you want to read the book?"
I wouldn't say:
"Why do not you want to read the book?"

I don't think there grammatically is a difference; but over time the language and the dialect change, to the point where some words fade of out use. There may have been a time where people said the latter of the two, but we just don't today.

And I personally feel that the latter doesn't even sound formal. It sounds... less intelligent. I mean, why would you write it out like that?

2007-11-27 10:08:46 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 2 0

There is no real difference between the two constructions. The contractions are considered less formal that the written out form. If you are writing a paper for class, use the written out form. If you are leaving a phone message for somebody, the contraction is more than fine.

2007-11-27 10:09:11 · answer #3 · answered by jack of all trades 7 · 3 0

There is no grammatical difference, but beware the most commonly misused contraction of all - "there's". For example "there's cows in that field," or "there's cookies on this plate."

"There's" is a contraction of the words "there" and "is" denoting a singular verb. "There is a cow in the field" for one cow "there are cows" for more than one. "There're" sounds akward, so we tend to improperly use the singular contraction.

2007-11-27 10:19:01 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

I believe the contraction can be used in an informal piece of writing. Contractions, as taught in school, are not supposed to be used in formal writing, like formal essays, etc.

p.graph: its not: "Why do not you want to read the book", it should read, "Why do you not want to read the book?"

2007-11-27 10:08:46 · answer #5 · answered by ҡʏʟɛ - ❄ 6 · 1 0

Not much of a grammatical difference if used correctly. It is easy to use (it's) incorrectly, LOL or Word thinks there is. It is much harder to use other one incorrectly, so that major difference this person sees.

2007-11-27 10:21:54 · answer #6 · answered by Mister2-15-2 7 · 1 0

Contractions are usually used informally, like everyday conversation. Otherwise, the separated words are used for fomal things, like essays for school, etc.

2007-11-27 10:08:50 · answer #7 · answered by asig1e 2 · 2 0

When you mean " it is " and you write "its" and forgot to put an apostrophe like (it's) for it is, it is totally different grammatically.

2007-11-27 10:21:37 · answer #8 · answered by missmama 5 · 2 0

No there is not, they are simply the short version of the two words

2007-11-27 10:09:18 · answer #9 · answered by Star City Girl 5 · 1 0

I would say yes, since grammar is more about style.

2007-11-27 10:12:55 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

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