Ok, here's the situation. My boyfriend bought a house about 3 years ago with one of his friends. They refinanced back in Nov of 06', since then my bf's roommate/co-owner has moved out and is not wanting the house anymore. However, my bf's roommate is the one that signed the refinance loan (not that my bf wasn't capable, he was the only one on the first loan when they bought the house) I don't know, they just switched for some reason. Anyway, both my bf and his roommate are on the title. Is there anyway that my bf can just go ahead and get a loan instead of having to "sell" the house and "buy" it again even if his name is no the title?
2007-11-27
04:49:11
·
4 answers
·
asked by
Go Colts!
2
in
Business & Finance
➔ Renting & Real Estate
What exactly is quit claim? The house is selling for less then it was worth a year ago, so there is no interest on it when/if they sell it. Matter of fact, if they sell now, they will end up owing $25,000 plus the penalized amount of terminating the 2 year contract on the refinance loan, so that would be another $8-12,000 on top of that.
2007-11-27
05:40:02 ·
update #1