2007-11-26 15:05:59 · 9 answers · asked by ? 2 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
Thats better, its now part of an equation!
If there are no constraints on x then
For sin(π x) = 0, x = ...-3, -2, -1, 0, 1, 2, 3, ...
2007-11-26 15:10:04 · answer #1 · answered by perplexed* 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
sinÏx = 0 = sinÏcosx + cosÏsinx
cosÏsinx = 0
sinx = 0 since cosÏ is -1,
therefore
x = arc sin 0
= 0 or Ï
2007-11-26 23:11:38 · answer #2 · answered by john b2 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
in this case x =1 because in the unit circle pi=0
2007-11-26 23:08:31 · answer #3 · answered by bleedcelticgreen34 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
do you mean sin(Ïx) = 0, you just use ur calc. make Ïx = a, so you have sin(a) = 0. use the arcsin or sin^-1 button on ur calc. you should get 0. a=0, so Ïx=0, x=0/ Ï, so x=0.
2007-11-26 23:10:25 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Just think about it... Sin of what = 0? 0, pi, -pi, 2pi, -2pi, 3pi, etc. So x could be any integer, which can be written as (-infinity,infinity)
2007-11-26 23:12:09 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
By using general equation
sin(pix)= sin(nÏ) or sin(Ï) or sin0
where n belongs to Z(integer)
Ïx= 2nÏ +/- nÏ OR Ïx=2nÏ +/- Ï OR Ïx=2nÏ
or x= 2n +/- n OR x=2n+/- 1 OR x=2n
2007-11-27 11:07:10 · answer #6 · answered by Deepthi N 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Need more info
2007-11-26 23:08:42 · answer #7 · answered by SIUKEY G 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
sin (Pi x) =0
sin(nPi) =0
Pi x = n Pi ----> x = n (n =0, +/-1 , +/-2.....)
2007-11-26 23:09:08 · answer #8 · answered by Any day 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
sin (Ï x) = 0
Ï x = 0 , Ï , 2Ï , 3Ï , ----
x = 0 , 1 , 2 , 3 , --------
2007-11-27 05:46:24 · answer #9 · answered by Como 7 · 3⤊ 1⤋