2007-11-26 12:29:13 · 9 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Royalty
It happened once with Queen Mary II (1689 - 1694) and King William III (1689 - 1702). The result was not convincing.
Mary reigned jointly with her husband and first cousin, William III, who became the sole ruler of both countries upon her death in 1694. Popular histories usually refer to the joint reigns as those of "William and Mary". Mary, although a sovereign in her own right, did not wield power during most of her reign, instead ceding it to her husband. She did, however, govern the realms when William was engaged in military campaigns abroad.
2007-11-26 12:33:34 · answer #1 · answered by MelbRoyalist 3 · 0⤊ 1⤋
It never used to be any different: Royal couples were always like this: either there was a queen ( in that case her husband would be some sort of duke or prince ), or there was a king ( in that case his spouse would be a princess of some kind...)
Just try to imagine a kingdom in which power is divided between a king and a queen...What if they start an argument on the issue of ruling ?! We're all well aware our relationships ain't perfect, why would the royalties be an exception !?
2007-11-26 21:26:13 · answer #2 · answered by javornik1270 6 · 0⤊ 1⤋
If there is a ruling King then there will be a Queen consort and they can rule jointly. But if there is a Ruling Queen then there cannot be a ruling King ie.Queen Elizabeth II because a King is considred higher than a Queen.
2007-11-27 01:51:20 · answer #3 · answered by rrctbgwr 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
It has to do with bloodline (the throne goes through a very specific order, and all monarchs must be blood relatives of the ruling family) and chain of command. The only exception was William and Mary, who were, in fact, blood related. That sort of thing is, well, frowned upon these days.
2007-11-26 22:17:10 · answer #4 · answered by hsmomlovinit 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Because it's a monarchy. One peson is in charge. That's the definition of monarchy. If that person is a man it is a king. If it is a woman it is a queen. (the wife of the king is also called "queen" but she is not the ruler.)
The reign of William and Mary is the one excception to this rule in English history.
2007-11-26 19:09:04 · answer #5 · answered by Nightwind 7 · 1⤊ 2⤋
One is more than enough.
The only occasion was the reign of William and Mary. William was a Dutchman who invaded England in 1688 and Mary had a faint connection with previous monarchs so she went along to give him credibility
2007-11-26 18:32:36 · answer #6 · answered by brainstorm 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
well, first things first they are allowed, but that wld be pretty queer cuz the heirs always go down through bloodline son dauter son dauter and so forth, but when someone becomes king or queen they marry someone who is not royal, so if a queen married someone not royal ,her husban would be king but he cant "rule" over people. get it
2007-11-26 12:35:39 · answer #7 · answered by Pujith A 2 · 0⤊ 3⤋
Just consider all the arguing that would go on....that's enough of an answer for me! Married couples fight for control, siblings fight for control, etc. Would be madness!
best of luck to you!
2007-11-26 13:37:23 · answer #8 · answered by Tira Misu 7 · 0⤊ 2⤋
Big Fight/Like Big Big Fight among the younger Royals.
Ohhh! nasty! that would be.
Should be made into a screen write:either serious or comedy or black comedy?
Why am I telling you this?
If u do give me a bit of rights in it,after all I have the concept? let's work on it 2getr?????.
2007-11-26 15:18:10 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 4⤋