are Vikings the same as Normans?!?

Question

arn't they the same group of people?

Answer 1

One group of Viking raiders settled in Normandy, invited there by the French monarch to help the French stave off further viking raids. There, they interbred and intermingled with the people already living in Normandy, so that by the 11th century, they were culturally distinct, both from the French and from the Vikings.

Answer 2

No, Vikings originated in the Scandinavian countries, Normans from Normandy in France, via Scandinavia.

They might have descended from the same group, but they did split off at some point. Vikings are from mostly modern day Sweden and Norway. Normans are from western France. There is a peninsula called Normandy, it is there they settled. By the time they fully controlled the area, there was enough interbreeding with the locals that they lost a lot of their Viking heritage.

It would almost be like saying the Arabs and Jews are the same as they are both descended from Abraham. But time has pretty much wiped out that similarity, just as it has for the Normans and the Vikings.

I have attached a couple of nice websites that have some interesting information. They are not from wikipedia, which most instructors don't allow for use as a reference.

Answer 3

The Vikings surely got here as raiders, yet some also settled. there have been DNA study that teach there is countless Viking DNA contained in the united kingdom inhabitants. also there are countless Viking position names contained in the united kingdom. The Normans got here as invaders. extra like a company takeover. most of the Saxon hierarchy changed into replaced by Normans after 1066. Normans were given land and titles as fee for battling with William.

Answer 4

Not exactly. Normans are basically considered a different group of people, in Normandy, and Scilicy, and England. They were descended from Viking's. But they became assimilated into the people they conquered. The Norman's basically meant Northmen. Wherever they conquered. But they were not considered Vikings by the people they conquered. They were just blond and straight haired young giants on horse back, speaking French. Can you think of anything that makes a practical difference, except language?

Answer 5

Sort of...

The Vikings came from Scandinavia. They conquered a lot of places, including Normandy, in what is now France. The word "Norman" (and Normandy) comes from "Northman" or "Norseman," other words for Viking.

However, the Normans and the Vikings in Scandinavia evolved completely different cultures. The Normans adopted Christinity and the French language. By the time the Normans conquered England, in 1066, the two were completely separate. The Normans drove other Scandinavian tribes out of England, and took it for themselves.

For more details, see the wikipedia articles on Normans and the Norman Conquest of England.

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Norman_conquest_of_England

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Normans

Answer 6

Yes. The Normans were decedents of Norse Viking invaders

Answer 7

No. The Normans were from Normandy, which is now a part of France.

The Vikings were from Scandinavia, which is northern Europe.

Answer 8

No, but Normans were Vikings....Vikings settled part of France, thus that part of the French coast was called after the Northmen or Normans...Normandy. Vikings were from many areas along the Baltic- Denmark, Sweden, Norway, etc, besides the many places they settled after conquering, such as parts of Britain, Italy and Russia.

Answer 9

Yes.

The Vikings landed in the Northern areas of France and settled there. Over time their name of Northmen or Norsemen, became Norman.

They maintained their good military tradition, resulting in the conquest of England in 1066.

Answer 10

Since the ancestors of the Normans were norsemen, then the answer is YES!!!