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2007-11-26 04:33:36 · 1 answers · asked by Anonymous in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

1 answers

Angles 1 and 2 only tell you something about lines j and k. They don't even touch g. That eliminates g and h being parallel.

Angles 1 and 2 are on the same side of the line h. So the answer is d:

D) j || k, by the Converse of the Same-Side Interior Angles Theorem.

The Same-Side Interior Angles Theorem says, that if two lines are parallel, then their same-side interior angles add up to 180°. The converse says if the same-side interior angles add up to 180°, then the lines are parallel.

2007-11-26 04:39:04 · answer #1 · answered by Puzzling 7 · 0 0

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