someone told me it was still in the constitution and has never been changed. i found this odd, if true, that they never changed it.
2007-11-26 02:42:16 · 14 answers · asked by ABC 3 in Politics & Government ➔ Other - Politics & Government
It is amended therefore changed. The original language is still there, though. Maybe that's what he was referring to.
2007-11-26 02:44:55 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
There is a portion of the Constitution that has been superceded by Amendments 13 through 15. The original section is still there, just no longer valid.
Interestingly enough, in researching this, I found a class of individuals who were still barred from voting after the adoption of these Amendments. Non-tax-paying Native Americans were not to be counted for apportionment purposes nor were they permitted to vote.
2007-11-26 02:51:26 · answer #2 · answered by Tom 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No. See the 14th Amendment .The person who told you so is repeating an evil lie and trying to keep racial tension going when there is no real reason to do so. The Constitution clearly says we all have equal rights. Ask the person to show you exactly what in the constitution he is referring to. Don't accept his assertion that it is there. Make him show you. Then explain to him that the 14th Amendment wiped out what he is worried about.
2007-11-26 03:32:13 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
I think the line from Article I, Section 2 is what you are referring to: "Representatives and direct Taxes shall be apportioned among the several States which may be included within this Union, according to their respective Numbers, which shall be determined by adding to the whole Number of free Persons, including those bound to Service for a Term of Years, and excluding Indians not taxed, three fifths of all other Persons."
This line was replaced by the 14th Amendment, Section 2: "Representatives shall be apportioned among the several States according to their respective numbers, counting the whole number of persons in each State, excluding Indians not taxed."
Most copies of the Constitution still have the original text in place, but are usually annotated with what amendment changed parts of the original text. Your friend is probably not seeing this annotation.
2007-11-26 03:18:09 · answer #4 · answered by Mutt 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes it's true. A bill has to be signed every 8 years that says slavery is still illegal. This last time Bush delayed signing it and almost passed the deadline which would have made slavery legal until the whole process was worked out. I may be wrong on the 8 years but I know it has to be signed every so often and bush procrastinated.
2007-11-26 03:01:08 · answer #5 · answered by ZX3R 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No. The part about slaves being only 3/5ths of a man was superseded when they abolished slavery.
Ask the person who told you that where he read it. There are a lot of myths about the constitution out there. It doesn't say "Government of the people, by the people and for the people", for instance; nor does it say "from each according to his ability, to each according to his need."
2007-11-26 02:47:35 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
In the language of the main text, it is still there. That will never change, however Amendments 14,15, and 16 pretty well clear that up.
2007-11-26 02:46:55 · answer #7 · answered by booman17 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Barry's Buddy is right. The original language is still there, but no longer in effect due to the Amendment.
2007-11-26 02:46:16 · answer #8 · answered by Leah 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
less than equal to what? read the constitution on line
2007-11-26 02:45:00 · answer #9 · answered by ear person 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
What Barry's Buddy said.
2007-11-26 02:46:22 · answer #10 · answered by WooleyBooley again 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋