I bought a used car from a dealer in California, in 2006, yesterday we went to trade it in and they ran a carfax report, come to find out there is frame damage on our car. When we bought the car we asked them if it had ever been in an accident, they said no. It was not under warranty or certified. Do I have any legal recourse? I would have never bought the car if i knew there was frame/structual damage to it.
2007-11-25 06:47:29 · 2 answers · asked by Anonymous in Politics & Government ➔ Law & Ethics
You would have to show that the old dealer knew about the damage. If you used the car for over a year, with no problems, the frame may not be an issue.
It sounds to me like the new dealer is trying to find a way to knock down the trade-in allowance.
If if becomes an issue, have your own body shop manager look at it.
2007-11-25 06:56:04 · answer #1 · answered by regerugged 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Nope. You have no recourse.
You could have easily had the car checked out by carfax or a good mechanic BEFORE you bought it. You didn't....so, you bought it AS IS.
Most people don't like to spend the extra money to check out a used car before purchasing - and then complain when they get a lemon.
It is your responsibility. Buyer Beware....Caveat Emptor.
2007-11-25 11:28:24 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋