In layman terms earnings per share is the profit the company makes / total no: of shares the company has floated .
Say a company makes 5 Million USD profit , and 50000 shares means 5/50k is the EPS . Am I correct ????
My question then is
1) if there are preferred shares then the profit percentage for preferred shares is deducted from computing the EPS .?
2) doesnt the capital of the company have any significance in computing EPS ?
Recently a company said it is diluting its real estate ( capital ) into business and caused a huge uproar in the stock of the company . they claim if you take the land price alone of the company - the value of the share would be 2000 INR instaed of 600 INR which it is trading today ...is this justified ? I mean real estate is a capital first of all and need not reflect in the profit of the company . Suppose company sells of the whole real estate then this is justified . But is it a reality ?
2007-11-25
04:51:36
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5 answers
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asked by
Nishant V
1
in
Business & Finance
➔ Investing