2007-11-25 02:17:03 · 4 answers · asked by Anonymous in Politics & Government ➔ Law & Ethics
Yes. It's the person it's addressed to that counts.
2007-11-25 02:19:01 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
If the address on the document is not correct this will not prevent the formation of a legally valid contract. As long as the courts, when construing the intentions of the parties, can clearly identity the person's concerned.
Many contracts record the details of the parties incorrectly. For example, if a contract for the sale of a car stated £500 instead of £5,000 if there was evidence, extrinsic or otherwise, the contract would not fail provided the necessary contractual elements for a valid contract existed.
I hope this helps!
2007-11-27 17:00:44 · answer #2 · answered by Vipguy 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I don't see why they wouldn't. If you are referring to a speeding ticket or some ticket written by a police officer, addresses don't have to match.
If a Notary signs a legal doc and the addresses do not match, she has to ask why. That's part of the job.
I would be asking questions if it were something I was about to sign such as a lease, a rental agreement, or mortgage papers. Then it would be a big deal and would need to be changed.
2007-11-25 10:26:38 · answer #3 · answered by Big Bear 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
depends on document, if it relates to property then it needs to be corrected,if it is just the means of delivery to the person named then no it is the content that counts.
2007-11-25 10:25:48 · answer #4 · answered by JOHN P 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋